Hello everyone. Thanks for taking time to read this and respond. I don't want to go into detail about my encounter, as it was YEARS ago, i'm talking about 8.5 years ago, going on 9 years. I am a 27 year old female and that exposure almost 9 years ago was unprotected vaginal, no ejaculation, and I gave oral to him (I know, not a risk I guess). Anyways, never had the nerve to test. Yes I had some symptoms back then, not fever, but a few other non-specific symptoms, no need to divulge, as I have seen many postings focused on symptoms and I know not always important as compared to your risk. So finally yesterday I got up the nerve to take a test. I went to a local Giant Eagle and bought the Oraquick at home kit mouth swab test, I did the test myself at home. One line, negative, although it was faint, but definetly only one line, I called the number on the box for a 24 hour hotline and they said even if it was faint, it worked and it is negative. ( FYI: I took two of these Oraquick mouth swabs this weekend, just to ease my mind a bit, and both had the same negative results).
Anyways, my question is: I have read a few things here and there that said antibody production may stop in late stages of infection, in other words, there may not be antibodies present in later stages of infection due to decreased immunity and therefore may not show up positive on an antibody test, ultimately may receive a negative result when in fact you may be positive. Would the fact that I didn't test until this many years later affect my results of the Oraquick I took at home? Could I have gotten a false negative if by chance I have had the disease this long and I am no longer making antibodies?
Ughhh, so sorry for this long forum. Any advice would be greatly appreciated!