Hello, I am a 33 year old white female, and I had completely condom protected vaginal sex 2x with a white male who is 41, (he is married). We have been friends for a long time. I do not have any known STDs as of my last complete testing a couple months ago, and he claims that he does not either.
Both times we had sex, he only came one of those times, and it was in the condom. My vagina had no exposure to his semen at any time. Before he came, I gave him brief oral sex, but he did not ejaculate in my mouth or was even close to coming. He also gave me brief oral, but I didn't have an orgasm. So I feel absolutely fine but then exactly 2 weeks later, I had a rash on my inner arms and one on my leg, that went away pretty quickly, but what the heck? It looked like it was a prickly heat type rash but could have also been viral, it is really hard to tell from the images searches I did online. It was not very serious rash and was itchy. Could it be possible:
1. that any of my activities constituted an HIV risk?
2. that i would JUST get the rash and no other symptoms? I mean, nothing - no fever, no cold, no flu, lymph nodes fine, etc.
I know the way viruses work it usually means you have to have the rest of the symptoms to get the rash. Still, I am a little freaked out here. Any advice?