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Please respond by addressing my questions as completely as possible because I want to be able to get a more complete evaluation of my risk. I am a 17 year old heterosexual male from Houston Texas. I recently hired an escort for protected sex including protected oral sex. She had a strict policy about condom usage. During the encounter i may have had slight tears on my penis. I masturbated with the condom on and then 10 minutes later took the condom off and used the same hand to masturbate on my penis again. After this exposure I returned home and took a bath to try and clean as best that I could. I didn't worry about the exposure in regards to std acquisition for about a week. At that one week mark I began to experience severe fatigue and a sore throat. I experience weight loss of 10 pounds. I do not believe I had a fever however I could be wrong. This illness lasted for several weeks with the fatigue extending for about a month. After the sore throat had disappeared for a couple weeks i had another sore throat that lasted another several weeks with a dry cough. During the initial illness I became aware of acute HIV illness and felt that several of the symptoms resembled
My own. My father took me to a urologist 3 and a half weeks and he drew blood. He said my urine looked clear of stds and cleared me of HIV by the result of a western blot test taken from that blood. At the time of that appointment I was still experiencing fatigue and sore throat issues. I didn't inform my urologist of those symptoms and am worried that that dropped his concern about HIV. He said that since it was protected, an that the 3 week western blot yielded a negative result that I was surely clear of HIV. I am worried however about the suspicious nature of those symptoms and their occurrence from the time after the exposure.  I woul like to add that I have a clinical diagnosis of depression and am suffering currently from a dysautomnia condition ( diagnosed after the exposure ). I have several key questions that are critical to my getting on with my life from this moment. Please take the time to help me. Does my exposure as described resemble a high risk exposure? Do united states prostitutes often carry HIV? Does my illness resemble acute HIV infection and if so would my western blot have given a + diagnosis? Does a lack of headaches, night sweats, fever, lymph node swelling, and rash give me probable confidence to believe my illness was not related to HIV? Would my urologist be correct in stating that I do not need to pursue further testing? Is the 3 week mark somewhat accurate for proper diagnosis?  What should I do now? Should I be concerned at all?
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186166 tn?1385259382
hiv is transmitted through...
unprotected vaginal / anal intercourse
sharing iv drug works
mother to child

CLEARLY you had NO risk.

any "symptoms" you are trying to associate with infection are NOT hiv related.
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Avatar universal
You never had a risk--you used protection.I don't know why you were given a western blot because that's a confirmatory test not a regular antibody test like an elisa.Your symptoms are from stress and nothing else.
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