About 3 weeks ago I had unprotected oral/protected vaginal intercourse.
It was very brief and my partner did not ejaculate, I’m very sure the condom did not break/slip and I’m sure he didn’t “stealth” (remove the condom) me during intercourse but I’m extremely worried.
19 days after our intercourse a rash began to form on my arms/back of my hand, within 3 days it was across both arms, my right shoulder and across my entire chest essentially.
The rash was not severely itchy but it would itch here and there, it did look to be maculopapular/like hives. After 3 days of unresponsiveness to Claritin, I was prescribed prednisone for 2 days by a doctor which I took and the rash subsided.
I had a rapid test completed on the 2nd day of prednisone (24 days past intercourse) but know this may not be a reliable indicator).
No other symptoms came with the rash but l can’t help but shake the feeling the condom may have been faulty and this may have been a seroconversion rash since no reason was identified by the doctor who prescribed the prednisone to me.
Do these characteristics sound similar to that of the ars rash?
Would taking prednisone (40mg dosage daily) affect my test)?
I will be taking a 4th gen test at 6 weeks past intercourse but still wanted to check in for insight. Please help clarify some of my concerns here.