Please reread all the replies you've been given for your concern before raising a new question.
Ok so this will be my final post since i feel I have totally over-tested/overreacted. But just for final peace of mind. If I slept with this girl on October 2nd 2010 and she tookan OraQuick Swab Test on February 18th 2011 and the result was negative, that would mean I had no chance at being exposed right?
It doesn't matter you have a conclusive test result.
was i? im sorry i just wanted to be reassure Teak. I wasnt quite sure what condom type was used because she unwrapped it and i was told if it were lambskin i could be in trouble. But does that even matter with my tests at 89-90 days post exposure?
To anyone who knows the answer. Let me get this straight. Even hough my EIA test was done around 89-91 day post exposure and it was non-reactive. This means that there is no chance for a false negative?
I notice today that I have a black/purplish color pin sized dot on my cheek, should I be worried?
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So I'm like freaking out. Going into my last test (Eia ~90 days post exposure) my Stensens ducts on each side of my inner cheeks seemed to be unnormal. I can feel the saliva coming out but they look like cuts. I dabbed my right one today and a little spec of blood was on the napkin. Is this a symptom of ars? I may be self examining myself but I've tested and don't know what else this could be due to. Doubting my 2 test results (6 weeks and ~90 day EIA, both negative)
Yes and you are right. Playing with the odds is very dangerous. Only test in a right time tells the story.
We don't work with odds, if you have had an exposure odds won't tell you your status and we also go by how the manufaces tests were approved by the FDA.
Yes I know Teak. Doctors on expert forum work always with odds and they state that for persons at low risk, 6-8 weeks negative result is sufficient. I don ´t agree with this and in my opinion, it is total non-sense. Window period has nothing to do with degree of risk.
No low risk is not conclusive at 6-8 weeks. There are no tests marketed or sold to give a conclusive test earlier than 3 months.
Low risk=conclusive test at 6-8 weeks
High risk=conclusive test at 12 weeks
This recommendation doesn ´t make sence to me.
It is the same virus. It doesn ´t matter how high the risk was. When there is a possibility the person is infected the window period should be 12 weeks in all cases.
The OP poster was talking about testing. They didn't need testing but they did and it was conclusive.
Am I missing something here? The only "unprotected" act was receiving oral sex? Is that right?
If so, your test would have been conclusive on October 3rd because you were never at risk!
My exposure was October 2nd and my test was December 31st. This timeline makes my test results Conclusive correct?