I had open mouth kissing with tongue and unprotected frotting with a sex worker from Thailand in India, and my penis head was definitely totally wet with vaginal fluids. I later had protected vaginal sex with this woman and realised that her vaginal opening was very large, so I started to wonder how far up/inside I actually touched her vagina with my penis head. Normally, I would say that I know when I start to penetrate a woman but this time I feel unsure, particularly since I wonder what effect a large vagina with an almost nonexistent barrier between inside and outside has on the risk of getting HIV even when I only rub my penis between the vaginal lips and at her vaginal opening. The whole rubbing lasted for maximum 20 seconds, she was lying on me and moved back and forth twice, so twice I felt that my penis head got embraced by the soft and wet vaginal lips. Since I felt very uncomfortable I moved her away and asked for sex, but protected. I have read many posts already and can't still make sense of the whole fact that hiv becomes inactive when exposed to air. When I rub my penis in between the vaginal lips and the head is covered with the lips and vaginal fluids, there seems to be no air either, isn't that correct? So potentially there could be a transmission during this one second of vacuum. And I also don't understand how a short and superficial dip into the vagina suddenly poses a risk since 1 second later everything will be exposed to air again. Could you please provide me with some expertise? I now took a Rapid HIV Test here in India, where the staff took blood from my veins in the morning, and in the evening I collected the results, which were non-reactive. This was exactly after five weeks of exposure. What is the accuracy of this test, is it possible to give a percent number? Unfortunately, the written comments of the doctor were not clear as to what was actually tested, if it was only antibodies or also antigen, since he mentions the following in the comment section: "this test is used for screening for hiv-1 and/or hov-2 infection in asymptomatic patients. Negative hiv-1/-2 antigen and antibody screening test results usually indicate absence of Hiv-1 and hiv-32i nfection. Reactive hiv-1/-2 antibody screening test results suggests the presence of hiv-1 and/or hiv-2 infection ...". What does this mean now, was this a general comment on all tests or was he talking about this test, and what did he analyze now, antibody only, or antibody and antigen? Has anyone of you a clue how this could be interpreted?Unfortunately, I cannot contact anyone of this medical institute.
At the same day at night, I immediately made a hiv duo test which costs 60$ approximately, whereas the rapid test cost approximately 15$. So my thinking was that if the duo test which tests antibody and antigen is that expensive then the rapid test will only be an antibody test. Dpes this make sense?
Thank you so much for your help!