After having some questions of mine answered here and looking further into the forums, this is the extent of my knowledge; HIV can only be transmitted (sexually) by having unprotected anal/vaginal intercourse.. and that is it?
I also know now that oral sex (unprotected) is viewed as a theoretical risk at best..
Does this same level of risk apply if I have a few cuts/sores on my hand and fingertip-cuticle-area created the SAME DAY that they come into contact with semen from giving a hand-job?
Why do other sources say that this is possible, when it apparently isn't?
If I always use condoms when I have anal sex with other men, will I never be at appreciable risk of HIV?
I want to believe everything I have read here.. Just some more answers would be really appreciated. I really can't figure this out by myself.