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confusion about the oral study

Hello expert,
I came from Japan and i posted last time about my exposure(oral on a massage girl)
Last time i was told saliva can inhibit the virus,i felt better,after then i've read more about the long term oral study you guys quoted.

In one post,i read the Spanish study ---"In June 2002, a study conducted amongst 135 HIV-negative Spanish heterosexuals, who were in a sexual relationship with a person who was HIV-positive, reported that over 19,000 instances of unprotected oral sex had not lead to any cases of HIV transmission. "
http://www.medhelp.org/posts/HIV-Prevention/TEAK/show/315280

But then after i read the whole article in the post above ,i found it said  --- "Amongst the HIV-positive men, 34% ejaculated into the mouths of their partners and vaginal infections were detected in two of the HIV-positive women who had cunnilingus performed on them by a HIV-negative partner.
In total almost 19,000 instances of unprotected oral sex were estimated to have occurred involving the 135 couples over the ten years of the study, but not a single case of HIV transmission was detected"

I didnot quite understand the meaning of this, one aspect it said"vaginal infections were detected in two of the HIV-positive women who had cunnilingus performed on them by a HIV-negative partner" and then it said"not a single case of HIV transmission was detected"

Did i misunderstand it? Did the part i quoted about cunnilingus meant that TWO POSITVE WOMEN MADE THEIR NEGATIVE PARTNER INFECTED BY CUNNILINGUS?

Sorry for my bad english, please explain to me :)
Thank you!

8 Responses
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Avatar universal
OMG...sorry for my BAD BAD english understand...i am so SORRY!!!

I think now i could move on without dout!!!

Thank you for your patience ,Teak,and you basmoth!!!
Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
'vaginal infections were detected in two of the HIV-positive women who had cunnilingus performed on them by a HIV-negative partner.'

Hi, not sure if it's my place to post, but what this means is that the women in the study who already were HIV+ also had vaginal infections, and that the HIV- partners who performed cunnilingus on them still remained HIV negative as per the conclusion.
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Avatar universal
So why the Ten years' Spanish study claimed "NOT ONE SINGLE CASE WAS DETECTED" but also claimed
_ "vaginal infections were detected in two of the HIV-positive women who had cunnilingus performed on them by a HIV-negative partner. "

??
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Avatar universal
You did not read about any verified document cases. For the last time. HIV is not transmitted by oral sex and you've been advised as to why and if you are unconfortable with oral sex don't do it. No one can force you to have oral sex.
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Avatar universal
Oh PLEASE HELP me for the LAST TIME!
May be it's my bad english caused the confusion.

But it really said " INFECTIONS were detected in TWO of the HIV-positive women who had cunnilingus performed on them by a HIV-negative partner."

TWO cases at least, wasn't it?

Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
No it's not conflicting at all, what is conflicting is your cause to prove everyone is wrong and you are right. .
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Avatar universal
Sorry for bothering you, but it's so strange.

one aspect the study said ---vaginal infections were detected in two of the HIV-positive women who had cunnilingus performed on them by a HIV-negative partner.

another aspect it said --not a single case of HIV transmission was detected


they are conflicting, aren't they?
Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
Oral sex does not transmit HIV. We are not going to go over this with you everyday. If you are unconfortable with oral sex, DON'T DO IT. It's simple.
Helpful - 0
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