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hiv 1 vs. hiv 2
Last week I got results for a test for hiv back from stdcheck (47 days post potential exposure). The results included the following statement: "Final Interpretation Comment 01 HIV antibodies were not confirmed and HIV 1 RNA was not detected. No laboratory evidence of HIV 1 infection. Follow-up testing for HIV 2 should be performed if clinically indicated." I take this to mean I have no need to retest for HIV 1 in 90 days. I asked them what 'clinically indicated' meant and they said it meant if I had any contact with someone from Africa. What do you think it means?
If that test was looking for antibodies, it was a 3rd generation test, and is not accurate less than 90 days after the exposure. What I recommend you is, as you would have to repeat it anyway, go for a 4th generation test, which will look for antibodies and virus, and it's accurate 28 days after the exposure.
All the best.
All the best.
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