Hi guys- This is just something I've been curious about, brought on by a bit of hypochondria.
The internet is filled with info that says something like, "HSV-1 is responsible for a large number of new genital herpes cases because oral sex is more popular."
What I am wondering is that, in order to get HSV-1 on your genitals, that means you DON'T already have HSV-1 orally (cold sores). So if you are kissing somebody who is also going down on you, why aren't you likely to get HSV-1 on your mouth instead of or as well as on your genitals?
Are most of these new cases from people who aren't kissing or making out with their partners a lot? Prostitution?
I also don't understand that if HSV-1 'likes' the oral route better, does that not mean that for any discordant couple you'd have a far greater chance of catching cold sores from them than getting it genitally? But everything out there is all about genital transmission between discordant couples...