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A curiosity question

Hi guys- This is just something I've been curious about, brought on by a bit of hypochondria.

The internet is filled with info that says something like, "HSV-1 is responsible for a large number of new genital herpes cases because oral sex is more popular."

What I am wondering is that, in order to get HSV-1 on your genitals, that means you DON'T already have HSV-1 orally (cold sores).  So if you are kissing somebody who is also going down on you, why aren't you likely to get HSV-1 on your mouth instead of or as well as on your genitals?

Are most of these new cases from people who aren't kissing or making out with their partners a lot? Prostitution?

I also don't understand that if HSV-1 'likes' the oral route better, does that not mean that for any discordant couple you'd have a far greater chance of catching cold sores from them than getting it genitally?  But everything out there is all about genital transmission between discordant couples...
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101028 tn?1419603004
yes that is correct.
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Avatar universal
Thanks for the info.  I'm just surprised that I haven't found a single care of someone going, "My partner gave me genital herpes and cold sores" out there on the intertubes, it's always just genital herpes.

So you are saying there's a good chance they are catching hsv1 orally but only showing symptoms genitally?
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101028 tn?1419603004
actually anywhere from 1/4 - 2/3' s of folks who contract hsv1 genitally also contract it orally around the same time. since most folks don't get obvious cold sores when infected, oral swabbing is the only way to know for sure if you contracted it in both locations.  

indeed you are still always more likely to contract hsv1 orally than genitally.  

grace
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