Hi There
I'm a concerned Dad, and I wanted to ask a very specific question. I've read through a number of threads, and the remarks all seem to be very helpful, and sound very clear - but I want to be utterly black & white clear on one point, if that's okay ?
I don't know if I have herpes, actively or as a carrier, I just suspect, due to a chronic tingly itch around my scrotum.
I have three sons, and before I began to suspect, I had baths with my first son.
In the bath, he would sit on my belly and clap hands and laugh (it was awesome fun).
I'm very concerned that when I lifted him, or moved him around in the water, our genitals may have touched. Not firmly, not vigorously, no rubbing, but to be completely clear, I'm concerned my scrotal sac may have touched his. The contact was probably under water, but may even have been above the water level.
SO .. my question.
In the above scenario, if we put aside that I suspect I might have herpes, and suggest that I absolutely 100% do, is it possible, that by light, fleeting contact with my childs genitals, that I may have passed the condition to him. Some posts very flatly say no: it requires sex. I want to be 100% confident that there's no scope for a health concern for my child.
If there is the possibility of transmission, what can be done to confirm this - I read in one thread that it's there's no way to diagnose males unless they have an active outbreak ? Ive never seen lesions or sores on myself or him.
I'm really grateful. You're the most credible experts that I've found - I spoke to my own GP about my possibility of herpes and asked for diagnostic steps to be taken and they said there was nothing that could be done and gave me a vague leaflet to read. It was pretty useless in terms of education.
1) in the above scenario is it possible I could have transmitted the condition to my child ?
2) if that is the case, what can I do to ensure the minimum possible consequence to him & his life ?
Thank you !
This discussion is related to
transmission question.