First Question: My GF had said she had what she called small sores vaginally due to what she assumed was herpes (PCR test complete 9 years ago). She had a test(s) done in 24 hours of the notice of the sores (PCR) that said "Source: Labia. Positive HSV1, Negative HSV2." No other outbreaks or issues ever (since). She was not prescribed anything and she forgot about it.
We met over a week ago and she showed me her tests. She had another test completed 6 months ago. An IgG blood test which said "HSV1 positive, HSV2 negative. The issue here is she had something happen 9 years ago that her OB swabbed and tested and said she had herpes (I assume). Yet the blood work completed 6 months says she does not (HSV2).
Confused? Does he have it or not? If not, how does it explain the blisters/sores she had?
Second question: I can't seem to find accurate information on this but is it possible for her to transmit HSV1 to me via oral sex? She has never had a cold sore or any symptoms ever. We have not had intercourse but she has performed oral sex several times. If so, what is the level of risk involved? Should I be worried. We have stopped having oral sex until we understand more. Moreover, how to people who are married and one has HSV1, perform oral sex with each other with the risk?
Thanks in advance.