There was no way to delete or edit the previous post and I did it wrong. The correct one is here.
I recently met a new sex partner and we have had sex 3 times, approx November 6, Novermber 18 and December 9th. His Herp test showed no Herp 2 but a 4 on herp 1.
Before that I had only been with one other person I have known forever in early October. That person is going for a test next week and they have only been with me and one other person in the last 4 years.
I went by today and got my paper work from Patient First. I had gone in on December 12, 3 days after having sex. I had rough consentual sex and had become swollen and red as soon as I got home. The swelling and itching were bothering me and I wanted to make sure I hadn't tore anything. I have had no burning or problems while peeing. I took a Diflucan and the swelling immediantly went down. I use to use an estrogen creme for dryness (hysterectomy) but havent in the last 2 years.
My tests all came back good but one. Actually both are herp tests but I don't understand them they read as follows.
HSV Type 2 IgG Aby Type Spec <0.91 (0.00-0.90)
Negative 1.09
HSV, IGM 1/2 Combination 1.35 (0.00-0.90)
Negative 1.09
Then it had notify patient she has HSV1 (typo or did they mean 2? Hubby has had type 1 forever but very few breakouts) and says *PLEASE ADVISE PATIENT SUGGESTIVE OF A RECENT HERPES INFECTION
and that 21 Valtrex would be phones into pharmacy (they did not tell me this) I am getting them tonight.
I have had no blisters, just redness and some burning which I assumed was from the vigorous sex. I've had a few white dots bumps that even rubbing them hard did not hurt. I used a yeast tablet internally and they went away. What do my numbers look like to you. Im confused