I am a 29 yearold female who had unprotected sexual encounters (including me giving oral) with a man, between 14-18th March. He then went away for a week to his home in the US and was tested for STIs there. When he returned to the UK, he accused me of giving him an STI. He said his symptoms began on 19th March, with frequent/painful urination being the most troublesome. He claimed that he also had swollen glands in his groin, and felt generally run-down and unwell. When my test results came back, they were negative for chlamydia, gonorrhoea, HIV and syphillis and so these can be ruled out as causes. The clinic I went to in the UK did not test me for any other STIs as I have no symptoms. When his US results came back (urine and blood tests I think, no swabs), he claimed all results were negative but that he had a 'low' antibody count for HSV-1, and tried to accuse me of giving him this infection genitally from oral sex. He had his test on 24th March, and as far as I know, he never complained of blisters being present. One week later, he contacted me and claimed he was 'mistaken' about the positive antibody test for HSV-1, and that his test was in fact negative. (I am baffled as to how he could lie about this - are false positives common?). Anyway, I am almost certain that I will carry HSV-1 (although have never been tested in the UK), because both my parents have had cold sores. However, I have not had cold sores that I can remember, and certainly not when I gave this guy oral. My questions are:
1) Do his symptoms sound like herpes? What would a US clinic test for when presented with these symptoms?
2) What are the chances I could have actually given him HSV-1, considering I haven't had a cold sore for over 10-15 years? Surely if I passed on HSV-1 to him through oral sex, he would also have cold sores on this mouth, given that I kissed him?
3) What else could have caused his symptoms if it can't be chlamydia or gonorrhoea?
Thank you very much for your help.