Let's work through this.
First is that if you have HSV1, then you've probably had this since childhood.
If your partner's sores are related to herpes, they will be from her own HSV1 infection also childhood related.
In all likelihood, if you were infected with HSV2, then you'd have had some relevant symptoms within a week. They have have been a small patch of sores but something nevertheless.
The research suggests to be of the order of 99% sure, you need to wait until 16 weeks. Yes sorry it is that long.
However I do not see the chances as being high because they were perhaps 1 in 1,000 to start with and then actually being infected without symptoms is a small chance again.
At 5 weeks, around 60% of people will test positive on an IgG if infected. If you have a clear negative at 5 weeks with no symptoms then yes I think you're getting pretty much 95% sure you were not infected with HSV2.
Thanks for your response
Yes I did have cold sores as a child and so did she
So from your post I take it is not likely I have passed an hsv-2 infection to her orally?
Her sores started healing after a few days (always red/blackish red in color, never white or yellow) but today (almost a week after sores appeared) she is coming down with a sore throat and fever..
This incident has made me realize how much I love and care about her and the guilt I feel for having potentially exposed her to something is almost unbearable.
I am currently trying to avoid sexual activity and use protection until I get sure results. Which the lab I am using (quest herpeselect through stdcheck.com) claim to be 95-97% accurate 4-6 weeks post exposure
I do not know why they claim that, Herpeselect (the manufacturer) does not make that claim as far as I'm aware for IgG testing. I wonder if they are making some assumptions regarding combined IgG/IgM testing which I would not personally put much credence in.
I do believe you are overreacting to your partner's symptoms, which you are being overly sensitive about.
A person with oral HSV1 is incredibly unlikely to be infected orally with HSV2.
Thank you for chiming in. Surely puts my mind at ease to an extent
I got another test done 5-weeks post exposure and the results as follows:
hsv-1 1.30 positive
hsv-2 0.06 negative
but now we are both having sores on the lips and corners of the mouth. So my question is, how likely would it be that I am asymptomatic for hsv-2 which I passed to my GF which she has now passed on orally to me? Is it possible for hsv-2 to only manifest orally?
it is worthy to mention that I have had occasional burning sensation at the tip of my penis but no leisions or sores what so ever
How confident can I be at the negative results 5 weeks post exposure?