Married 20 years, monogamous, no cheating; we separated Feb'17; & upon suspicion that she was surreptitiously dating (& might have been before separation), I tested in May for STIs, & came back on IgG test HSV2 titer at 7.71; I retested in August 2017, getting a titer over 8.0, YET SHE just TESTED <0.9 negative in late August?!?? How is this possible? Could I have carried it for a quarter century (before we married) and STILL NOT PASSED it to my wife? Or could she have gotten it back in the spring (Feb-April, or even May) passed it immediately to me in May, and she still hasn't developed antibodies while I did almost immediately? The results just don't make sense, as I've been with her well over a 1000 times (never a condom), had kids, etc., and have NEVER cheated. I don't understand this at all and it's going to be a few weeks before we can get in to see an infectious disease specialist. Wife says she believes me that I didn't cheat (and I did not), has admitted now that she HAS been having intercourse with others since May, but the timeline and results have left us baffled. Please shed (no pun intended) some light on this? Thank you in advance.