I'm a 30 yo gay male, have had monogamous sexual partners in the past, with no symptoms after sex.
Five days ago, I had unprotected oral sex with a guy I didn't know at all, who CLAIMED to have been tested "clean" for the major stds four months ago.
He had no visible ulcers or lesions in his mouth or genitalia.
I primarily received oral sex, which only lasted a few minutes, but it was pretty rough. There was also lots of touching of body parts, including him touching my anal area with his hands and even his penis. I did not ejaculate, but he did on himself after I gave him a handjob. No anal sex.
ONLY A FEW HOURS after this encounter, I immediately noticed mild pain with urination. I felt more "aware" of my urinary tract - it just felt more sensitive. I also had very noticeable increased urinary frequency -
Roughly a day or so later, I noticed slight itching of a small 5mm patch in my groin area, with overlying flaky skin (I also have a hx of eczema, but the appearance of it here is uncommon). No vesicles, no erythema.
I have been have a tingling/burning sensation perianally (I read that herpes travels along that nerve ending towards the anal region). At times, I think I'm experiencing tenesmus or the need to defecate for no reason.
I've had no frank urethral discharge, no vesicles on my penis or groin area.
I've also had some mild subjective fevers as well as mild myalgias.
I saw an urgent care doc, who didn't see anything on physical exam (no lesions, adenopathy, etc).
Labs:
UA: completely clean
GC/Chlam urine test: pending
Herpes Ab blood test: pending
I got IM rocephin, 1 gm of azithromycin. Started valacyclovir 1g bid because of how scared I was that this could be herpes.
*Could this be HSV-1 urethritis, even though I don't have visible lesions?
And if this HSV-1 from him giving me oral sex, shouldn't I also have oral symptoms as well since we did alot of kissing?
OR COULD this be a PRODROME for either HSV-1 or HSV-2?
Please help!