Thank you first of all for your time.
I have what I have come to believe is a herpetic whitlow on my right thumb. The first issue with it was back in 2009, though I did not begin to suspect Herpes as the cause until 2012.
I am married and my husband and I are both monogamous, so by the time I suspected Herpes, it was rather pointless to worry about it. Either we both had it, or we don't.
I'm now 17 weeks pregnant with our first child (my second, first from a previous marriage long before 2009).
My OBGYN requested a type specific IgG test last week which was done at Alfa Labs in Egypt.
The results are as follows:
HSV-1 IgG 2 Eu/mL (Reference range Negative less than 20)
HSV-2 IgG 24 EU/mL (reference range negative less than 20)
I assume this correlates to a 0.2HSV1 and 2.4HSV2 for the US tests as the range is under 20 not under 2.
My question is this... the initial outbreak is now almost 7 years ago... with zero chance of a new infection. The infection would definitely be 7 years or longer ago.
I know that anything lower than 3.5 is questionable and possible to be false positive, and the closer to 2 you are the more likely you are that it is a false positive.
Does this result look reasonable for a false positive? I'd assume that antibody levels after 7 years would be significantly higher than 2.4, but I/m having difficulty finding anything to say if antibody levels rise, or remain steady.
As for the finger... symptoms are as follows...
I typically get an even number of "dots" on my thumb, always the right thumb. Five years ago my arm muscles would tense up and be extremely sore for a day or two in advance, then I'd get an itchy area, then the dots would appear very tiny, they would merge into one larger clear fluid filled bump which would open, and the instant it opened all pain disappeared. It would take a week or more for the area to heal, and then I'd not have another issue for a month.
As time has gone on, the muscle tension/soreness no longer occurs. Occasionally I get a pain in my joint which is lessened by cracking my knuckle (so I know a spot will appear in a day or two when I have the urge to crack my thumb). I know it's bad, but I have found 100% relief if when I see the first "dot" if I use a thin sterilized pin to prick it and remove a bit of the clear liquid. I clean my hands and the area thoroughly and keep it bandaged for a week afterward. If I let it go until several dots show and then "collect" into one, it can be quite a bit more painful, and take much longer to heal.
I have dot every month right before menstruation, so I expect it's triggered by something hormonal.
I do NOT have genital outbreaks that I'm aware of, though I have been known to get an infected hair folicle on occasion, but it's not side or area specific, and it does not at all appear like pictures of genital herpes online.
*Complication* I'm in Egypt. It is not possible here to get additional testing or the Washington Lab tests. Doctors here are exceedingly resistant to any outside advice/suggestion. Nor will they do a swab.
I do plan to go back and get a second test in a few weeks to see how the results come out, but based on the length of time since my first lesion on my finger (7 years) and now, and the low result 2.4 ... what is your opinion?