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Avatar universal

Is this most likely Herpes??

I have been with someone for about 6 months, we recently had unprotected sex multiple days after not seeing each other for a while.  The very next day after our last sexual encounter, we BOTH broke out in the same pimple type sores down there.  Neither one of us are/were aware of having an STI...we both thought we were clean.  We have not had other partners in over six month.  Neither one of us have had any previous symptoms and it literally appeared at the same time for us both.  

My lesions started as white pimple looking bumps all over inner and outer labia, even near inner most thigh area and pubic region.  The skin directly around the pimples/sores was also red.  At first it was uncomfortable, but I was able to do normal activities including working out.  It was literally not there one day and boom there the next.  And his lesions sound similar looking (although I haven't seen). They began to heal after about 4 days and now are scabbing over on dryer areas and cause no pain or itching for the past couple days.  The inner more lesions sometimes bleed a tiny a bit but are now just painless red sores.  

To me I had myself convinced it is herpes (I have been to the doctor waiting on results) however there were a couple weird things about the possible transmission of it either to me or from me.  It seems a bit strange that we both showed the same pimple sores at the same exact time, while neither of us have ever shown signs or been tested positive for herpes before or for any STI for that matter.  Or maybe I'm wrong?  Any thoughts!?  Thanks!
2 Responses
Avatar universal
It is not possible for you both to have a primary or initial genital infection. One of you must be the source and have the virus before the recent sexual episodes.

It is possible that one of you has experienced a recent infection and an outbreak triggered or occuring in the person with the previous infection.

It is also possible this isn't herpes at all for either of you.
Avatar universal
Thanks for the insight.  I am just troubled by where the possible infection came from.  He has not slept with anyone else besides me in over a year and I have not slept with anyone else besides him in over six months.  Both previous partners for us with protection and both of us have shown no initial symptoms.  

So my question is, for example, if I contracted this over six months ago and have shown no symptoms for that long until our recent sexual encounter I could have given it to him and we both had a primary break out at the same time?  Seems crazy, but I suppose possible.
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