I'm assuming this type of question gets asked all the time but I'll ask again:
Had unprotected oral sex and vaginal with the same partner for 7 months. Around the 7 month mark got a large red bump on my upper thigh near my groin (did not have the whitehead/puss), along with three very small zits/ingrown hairs/herpes lesions near it. Partner convinced me it was ingrown hairs. Had the large bump and an ingrown hair/zit/lesion show up again a month or two later (bump in same spot). Like an idiot I did not do any research and assumed only type 2 could occur on genitals so got tested for type 2 and was negative.
Fast forward 3-4 months and couple more ingrown hairs/zits/lesions (but no large bump). Got tested again this time for type 1 and 2. Came back positive for type 1. IgG at 8. Based on some of my research and looking at this forum there is no way that could be a false negative right? I had a little bit of hope because I called the company (stdexpress) about getting retested recently and they no longer offered the type 1 test. Was hoping this was because whichever test they were using was unreliable (no idea what type of test they used). They claimed since over 50% of the population has type 1 and it's harmless they saw no reason to offer the test. Logically and business-wise that doesn't make much sense to me (take people's money if they want to give it to you). Thankfully I did not have any contact with partners besides my ex during this time.
Long winded story, my questions:
Any possibility of false positive?
Any reason to get retested from a different company? And any suggestions for that company?
My ex claimed she was tested "for everything" after every partner she's had and never came up positive for anything and never had any outbreaks. The no outbreaks part I can believe but what are the odds she's been tested multiple times for type 1 and they call came up false negative? She has to be lying right?
I had to be pretty unlucky to get type 1 through oral sex right?
I'm assuming it would be pretty easy to spread type 1 thru unprotected oral sex to a partner who does not have type 1 correct?
Because I have type 1 genitally am I immune to getting it orally now?
I can still get type 2 genitally even though I have type 1 genitally right?
Thanks in advance for the help!