I can best help you if you post your results from the feb test too but really - no reason to retest in july. Odds were that your first result was either a low positive which is often falsely positive or you had the wrong test done at that time. Do you know how you were tested in feb?
Thanks for commenting, its appreciated. However, its funny you should ask what my results were in Feb 09, because truly and honestly; my results only indicated reactive without numbers to associate. Based on the results of HSV2 IgM (Reactive) and HSV2 IgG (Reactive) from a city base lab that my OB contracts with. (How reliable is this lab? I have no idea). However, the second time around though, I wen to Quest, my results read (.021) on a scale of .090 and below being negative and 1.10 and above being positive. When I asked my Dr. the reasoning behind a positive in Feb 09 and then a negative in May 09, I was told that he didn't understand the results; and suggested that I retest. However, for 3 months failed to even mention that I was reactive in the first place, but is suggesting that I retest after 3 months of a positive result after obtaining a negative result. So, I took a copy of my chart and plan to change my OB, due to his negligence. Anyway, this whole thing has taken an emotional toll on me since my knowledge of it early May09. I haven't been able to focus on anything but this and what if's. I keep thinking, if the results from Feb 09 states a reactive result that would mean that I had been previously been exposed to the supposedly virus and that the antibodies were detected in order to receive a reactive result, Right? so how come 3 months later (May 09), all of a sudden the antibodies are no longer detected in order to obtain a negative result. Weird. By this time, the results would have or should have only confirm the initial exposure, per se. And then, to make matters worst, my second set of results of (.021) were extremely low compared to the .90(negative) and 1.10(positive). My results suggested no close association to even being equivocal (.90-1.10). (Oh, did I forget to mention, that I have never had any symptoms what so ever, besides the thicker discharge. Which was swabbed and results from my culture stated that I had a bacterial infection). I guess I'm just over analyzing things, because I wonder all day long how could this be. I don't want to be in denial nor do I want to continue to stress myself out anymore. Therefore, I plan to retest again in July09 just to have piece of mind. After my results have been confirmed, I plan to take the Gardasil shot in order to prevent any possible future contractions. Please feel free to comment on any of the above statements. Thanks.