12yrs ago I tested negative for hsv1 and positive for hsv2 but I was shocked because I had only been with one guy. I don't remember the result numbers and I can't find them so I don't know if it was on the low end. I never had any symptoms whatsoever. Fast forward to 2015. I tested negative on both hsv 1&2. Then I met someone and we both tested this last April and both of us were negative hsv 1&2 though he did have chlamydia without symptoms and we were both treated. That was April. Now in December I had watery vaginal discharge. Dr tested and was BV so he gave me an antibiotic but 3 days later I got one sore, fever and aches. I had the sore swabbed and it came back hsv positive. Took a week of acyclovir and was clear. Now a month later the sores are back and have muliplied from 1 to 6. No other symptoms this time. My boyfriend swears he has been faithful and I have no reason to doubt him. I asked him to get retested and he did. So about 5 weeks after my initial symptoms he tested both igm and igg for both hsv 1&2 and all came back negative. So my question is, is it possible that I contracted it 1-12 years ago and just had the initial outbreak? Or should I be looking at him as the culprit even though he has tested negative twice now? It's so confusing.