according to Wikipedia "Antibodies that develop following an initial infection with a type of HSV prevents reinfection with the same virus type—a person with a history of orofacial infection caused by HSV-1 cannot contract herpes whitlow or a genital infection caused by HSV-1. In a monogamous couple, a seronegative female runs a greater than 30% per year risk of contracting an HSV infection from a seropositive male partner.[68] If an oral HSV-1 infection is contracted first, seroconversion will have occurred after 6 weeks to provide protective antibodies against a future genital HSV-1 infection."
so, if I have hsv-1 on my genitals, I cannot give my partner with oral hsv-1, hsv-1 on her genitals? I just wanted to check the validity of this statement as Wikipedia is not always accurate with its information.