60 days ago, I received about a minute of oral sex on my penis from a hetero female I do not know well.
7 days after exposure: I got mild burning sensation on the urethra. No discharge, no redness of the urethtra
18 after exposure: Went to clinic, tested neg for chlamydia, gonnorrhea, trich, HIV, even a VERY expensive test for HSV2 that was also negative. Doctor gave me the usual buffet of antibiotics anyway, just to cover the bases: 2G of Azithromycin on the spot, and 7 days worth of Cipro at 500mg twice a day.
10 days after the antibiotics, 28 days after exposure, I had sex with my wife, and was sensation-free until orgasm.
A few days later the urethritis returned, this time with redness and mild-to-no pain, and no discharge, urgency, stricture or anything else except redness and swelling of the urethra and mild pain, none while urinating.
Now my main fear is herpes, but it may be a little irrational:
It's now 60 days after exposure, and all I have is red inflamed urethra and mild pain. This has persisted for 30 days now. There have been no lesions that go through the herpetic cycle of blister, ulcer, scab, etc... There has been little to no pain urinating, and I've rubbed urine on the red area with no pain.
My understanding of the risk of herpes is this:
1] I have HSV1 oral because I've had cold sores but it's been since 2003 that I've had one, [it was a scorcher, though]. It's my understanding that if the woman who performed oral sex on me had an HSV1 sore, I would be a minimal risk of getting in on my penis, because I already have HSV1. Is that correct?
2] It's my understanding from reading this forum that if the woman who performed oral sex on my had oral HSV2, it does not transmit commonly from mouth to penis.
3] My urethritis has been static for over 30 days, with no herpetic sequence of blister-ulcer-scab/crust, and not much pain
Please reconfirm and reassure if reassurance is warranted. I don't want to risk my very happy marriage.