Hello!
I'm a male 28 years old. A year ago, november 2012, I had unprotected (heterosexual) with a woman friend of mine. A few weeks, maybe a month later I noticed one small bump on the penis. Didn't really think more about it at the time, it looks mostly like a skin tag.
But about a month ago I started getting warts under the foreskin. After reading and looking on the internet I figured out they were genital warts. So I went to the doctor last week and got prescribed Condyline. I used that for three days and all the warts, 3-4 off them under the foreskin were all gone. A bit of scarring is still there but I guess it will heal soon. All and all the treatment seems to have been nice, it didn't really burn at all and had almost no discomfort.
But the one wart/bump or skin tag that I've had for over a year didn't really respond to the condyline like the others. In august 2013 I had protected sex with a girl but the condom came off. I'm now starting to guess that she was the one who gave me the warts.
Could it be that the first bump/wart/skin tag acutally was not a wart after all? My doctor wasn't sure about it when he examined it, but he believed it was. It hasn't changed at all during the year I've had it. Yesterday it actaully came of when i touched it a bit. But perhaps a skin tag would react to the condyline as well.