Ok so I feel I need to explain my situation so you will fully understand my question.. sorry about how wordy it is.
I had gotten an abnormal pap smear result about a year and a half ago. I had a boyfriend then, and around that time he had started getting warts on his penis. I never had any warts. I recently (2 months ago) went and got a re-pap and the results were normal. My doctor said my immune system had fought off the HPV virus, but that the virus DNA is still in my body. I was thrilled, but at the same time I wasn't because my boyfriends' HPV was getting worse and worse...
I continued to have unprotected sex with my infected boyfriend for the next month or so because I figured my body was immune to that particular type that he had, and I previously had. I never developed any warts and I was hoping that my dysplasia was still gone. Two weeks ago we broke up.
I recently met another guy and last night we had sex for the first time. It was unprotected since I am on birth control and he did not have a condom... I know it was very very dumb and now I am worrying that I may have given him HPV.
So with all that noted, I am asking if it is possible that I have given my new partner HPV?
If my Paps went from abnormal to normal while having sex with my infected ex-boyfriend does that mean my body is currently immune to that particular type of HPV?
Could I have been re-infected by my ex-boyfriend during that month period after my normal pap smear?
And if I am not currently infected but had previously been infected, could I still pass that to my new partner?
If he had worn protection, would that have any impact on the chances of me transmitting HPV to him?
Please help... I would feel absolutely terrible if I have given this man HPV because of my lack of knowledge. I feel this is a relevant question to most females who have had abnormal pap smears and then received normal ones later on... Thank you very much for you time and I will anxiously be awaiting a response.