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a question concerning pre-ejaculate

ok, I know that it is possible for pre-ejaculate to contain sperm, and can get a woman pregnant.

However, my question goes a bit beyond that kind of general knowledge on the subject.

Here's the situation.

Month's ago I had sex with a woman roughly once a week for about a two month period of time. I never ejaculated inside her, and never ejaculated before having sex with her without urinating a couple times before we had sex.

She was also having sex with another man on a much more regular basis at the time. (this was known by all parties involved, and there was no STD issue) He also had unprotected sex with her, however he DID ejaculate inside her nearly every time(she has confirmed this).

The woman is now pregnant. About 5 months at this point.

What I want to know is do I have an equal chance of being the father of the child? Or is it much more likely that he, given the circumstances, is the father?

I would assume there's a better chance that he is the father, though I tend to be a worry wort and would just like to get an idea of the chances of me being the father.
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Avatar universal
Had you ejaculated before you had sex with the woman?

If so, did you urinate between your previous ejaculation and when you had sex with the woman?

The reason I ask is because I know if you have ejaculated before hand, there may be a bit of sperm in the seminal fluid that leaks out during sex.
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Avatar universal
You could very well be the father. When your penis was inside her you were leaking ejaculate that is capable of pregnating her, How do I know... it happened to me. I never even squirted in this girl and she became pregnant. DNA confirmed it.
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Avatar universal
I am totally agree with Alco. You should go for DNA test for this. this will clear all the thing..:)
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Avatar universal
you should always (no matter who the real father is or the chances of u being him) make  
a DNA comparison at the hospital.
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