Hi,
A little history first, I'm a 55 y.o female that prior to May 4, 2007 was walking 6 miles a day every day and caring for a 95 y.o male in his home as a home health provider, on May 4th of 2007 I was out on the playground with my granddaughter and running around and chasing her, and somehow stepped down wrong and fractured my left tibia, as this fracture healed I started having other problems, first my feet started feeling numb and began swelling around the ankles, then by the time I was off the crutches I began noticing difficulty holding on and grasping things (picking up a plate was becoming a challenge), also I started noticing nodules on my wrists similar to RA, my Dr. ordered tests for lupus, RA and gout (which all came back negative, but my WBC and platelet count were abnormally high) then in August of 2007, I had a seizure (tonic w/o clonic symptoms) of short duration (about 20 minutes), I was hospitalized overnight, scheduled for an EEG and CT of brain which did not give any indication as to why I had a seizure, I was not given a seizure diagnosis at that time, just seizure of unknown origin, no meds given at this time for this, then in June of 2008 (10 months later I had another seizure, but this one lasted 1.5 hours, collapsed a lung, plus other things I'm not really sure about as I currently don't have those records available to me, I then was placed on Dilantin, and hospitalized for 5 days, which are still a bit foggy, I don't remember much still, then about 6 weeks later I had another seizure, this wasn't as bad as number 2 but still bad and due to non-therapeutic dilantin level (0.3 mg/dl should be between 10-20 mg/dl, stayed in hospital again for 3 days this time and got my level back, with a dosage change, to make this part a bit shorter all in all I had 3 seizures 1 status epilepeticus, 1 tonic grand mal, and 1 partial, then I had an episode of dilantin toxicity and again seen and treated in ER. Ok, now to move on to now, in April of 2009, I started having tremors in my hands, then came the tingling in my fingertips, difficulty swallowing at times, episodes of extreme fatigue, difficulty walking, shuffling when I walk, trouble speaking (slurring words, mispronouncing, know a definition of a word but not able to think of word, intermittent short term memory problems), last month, I asked my dr if I could get tested for MS, since some of the symptoms I have been experiencing could be related to that and it was about the only thing I hadn't been tested for, he agreed and ordered an MRI of the Brain with and without contrast, which was done and I have a copy and it reads as follows:
Saggital T1, axial T2 FLAIR, T! pre and post contrast, T2, diffusion scans, coronal T1 post contrast, T2, and coronal T2 and T2 FLAIR imagges through the hippocampus were obtained. 10 ml of Magenvist was utilized.
The cerebrospinal fluid structures are within normal limits. The sella appear prominent and shows CSF signal in the T2 weighted images, empty sella syndrome. The optic chiasm and the pituitary gland appear unremarkable. No abnormal lesions are seen in the pituitary gland.
There is no acute bleed/abnormal extraaxial fluid collection. There is a small round approximately 6 mm high signal adjacent to the body of the right lateral ventricle best appreciated in axial image number 15, coronal image number 14. This is not appreciated in the T1 weighted images. It does not enhance. The finding is nonspecific. It may be associated with small vessel ischemic process. Other diagnostic considerations include demyelinating process, remotely low grade neoplasm, inflammatory process. Short term follow up MRI scan in 3 months recommended. There is no mass effect/midline shift.
The right and left hippocampus appears symmetric, without evidence of mass/aabnormal enhancement. The right and left orbital contents are symmetric. The right and left seventh and eighth nerve nerve complexes and cerebellopontine angles are symmetric, without evidence of mass/abnormal enhancement. The corpus callosum and brain stem appear unremarkable.
IMPRESSION:
1. PROMINENT SELLA LIKELY REPRESENTS EMPTY SELLA SYNDROME.
2. 6MM ROUND HIGH SIGNAL ADJACENT TO THE BODY OF THE RIGHT LATERAL VENTRICLE DOES NOT ENHANCE. IT MAY BE ASSOCIATED WITH SMALL ISCHEMIC PROCESS. OTHER DIAGNOSTIC CONSIDERATIONS INCLUDE DEMYELINATING PROCESS, LOW GRADE NEOPLASM, OR INFLAMMATORY PROCESS OR INFECTIOUS PROCESS{FELT TO BE LESS LIKELY}. SHORT TERM FOLLOW-UP MRI IN 3 MONTHS RECOMMENDED TO ESTABILISH STABILITY OF FINDINGS.
Now, what questions/requests should I ask my primary doctor about? Should I request a referral to a neurologist now or wait until the second MRI has been done? Also what does T1 weighted images mean? (Is that with contrast?) What does it does not enhance mean? (would that be the diffusion images?). Any and all input from the community would be greatly appreciated.
Oh also, just recently I have begun experiencing orthostatic blood pressure, and the only diagnosis' that I know about are Seizure disorder unknown etiology, seronegative Rheumatoid Arthritis, and Depression (although where that came from I'm not sure). So any recommendations as to where I work in guiding my doctor(s) in aiding them in getting a more definitive diagnosis?
Thanks In Advance.