Can someone help me understand this MRI result a little better, please?
CLINICAL INDICATION: 32 year old (M) with Lumbago, bilateral lumbar radiculopathy.
COMPARISON: None available.
TECHNIQUE: Multiplanar MRI was performed through the lumbar spine prior to and following intravenous contrast administration.
FINDINGS: For the purposes of this dictation, the lowest well formed intervertebral disc space is assumed to be the L5-S1 level, and there are presumed to be five lumbar-type vertebral bodies.
At T12-L1, there is a left foraminal disc protrusion which does not cause significant canal or neural foraminal stenosis.
At L5-S1, there is diffuse disc bulging with a superimposed left paracentral disc protrusion displacing the left S1 nerve root, and causing mild to moderate right and mild left neural foraminal stenosis. There is mild facet arthropathy. No significant
spinal canal stenosis. The there is abnormal contrast enhancement noted in the spinous process joint suggesting an inflammatory process. There are Schmorl's nodes with edema and inflammatory change at the endplates
The vertebral bodies are normally aligned. The vertebral body heights are well preserved. The signal intensity from the vertebral body bone marrow and spinal cord is normal. The conus medullaris ends at a normal level.
There is marked, symmetric enlargement of the visualized lumbar and sacral nerve roots, especially the bilateral S1 and S2 nerve roots as they exit the neural foramina.
INTERPRETATION LOCATION: Main Campus
IMPRESSION: L5-S1 left paracentral disc protrusion displacing left S1 nerve root. L5-S1 endplate degeneration and spinous process joint inflammatory process.
Marked lumbar and sacral nerve root enlargement, which is a nonspecific finding and which could reflect an underlying hypertrophic or demyelinating polyneuropathy or the presence of multiple nerve sheath tumors (e.g. in the setting of neurofibromatosis
type I or type II). Clinical correlation recommended.