I'll try to be brief-- Little over a year ago I went in with left sided numbness, speech issues, nausea, and drowsiness. I was sent home after a brief visit with the diagnosis of "viral syndrome". The only tests performed were cbc, basic chem. Labs were normal. Left side returned to normal within a couple of hours but vertical virtigo persisted for months. After almost a year I was referred to neuro who did an MRI and found one lesion- ts/flair <5mm in high right posterior frontoparietal white matter.
Shortly after this MRI I had another episode of Left sided numbness but this time I also had a headache, left eye pain upon movement, began stuttering, have "lost time" seem to be having short term memory issues, and am terribly tired and unable to "focus". this has persisted for over a month and is still a major issue. On second MRI a new lesion- "new left medial temporal focus (12/11) of increased t2/flair. "diffusion weighted sequences are limited by artifact, there are no definite foci of restricted diffusion."
No contrast was used in either MRI.
All labs have been normal- CBC, Lipid, Electrolytes, Tsh, Homocystein, ANA, B12, Sed Rate... there are a couple still pending and I will be going in for a lumbar puncture.
MRI DR "raises the question of a possible demyelinating process" and Neuro MD notes "time frame would speak for stroke or inflammatory disease in brainstem or right hemisphere".
My mother has mentioned everything from hughes syndrome to lead poisoning.
Any ideas? Can you tell me what the 12/11 means on the MRI??
Oh- I am a 37yo Italian American Female, four children, married, middle class, overweight, active (until recently) NO exposure to ticks, No chemical exposure at work.