Hi,
I’ll start off by saying that I am someone who worries more than I probably should sometimes. Therefore I like to educate myself as to the real risks so that I don’t obsess or worry myself sick about something considered low risk or not a high enough risk to lose sleep over. My girlfriend and I have sex on a daily basis. She’s 22 and presently takes Yaz (has been on it for years). I realize that no birth control is 100% effective, therefore to further reduce the risk of pregnancy I choose NOT to ejaculate inside of her. I do realize that there is semen in pre-seminal fluid therefore I know there is still a risk of pregnancy, though I like to think of that risk as pretty low (please correct me if I'm wrong).
Here is my question:
My girlfriend and I have had intercourse daily for the past ten straight days. She takes birth control daily, including the day of last time we had sex which was this past Sunday (7/5/09). Unfortunately, the following day, Monday (7/5/09), she realized that she lost her birth control pills. She immediately contacted her doctor who called in a prescription for the following day (Tuesday). Late Tuesday evening she doubled up and took two pills per her physician's recommendation. So, given the timing she essentially missed two days worth of pills (Monday and most of the day Tuesday since she took it so late on Tuesday and almost 48 hours had passed). We have NOT had intercourse for the past two days (Monday and Tuesday) because of this. My ultimate question is this: Is there a realistic risk that conception occurred on Monday or Tuesday from any residual pre-seminal fluid left inside of her from the sex we had on Sunday? I know sperm can live for several days and if she didn't take birth control for 48 hours (two days), is there a credible risk of her getting pregnant? As I mentioned she doubled up on pills late last night and will take one today, tomorrow and so on.