Thank you in advance of your kind help.
To be brief- my long-term g/f and I split due to differences on the timing for having children. She is now pregnant. After the split she met a guy that wanted children. They slept together unprotected from any contraception and he did ejaculate. This was sometime between the 6th and 12th Feb 2011.
I last had sex with her on the 28/29th December 2010 and didn't ejaculate inside her.
At her 12week scan she was told she was actually 16weeks (I'm pretty sure this is what she relayed to me anyway). Her due date is given as the 24th October 2011.
I have tried conception calculators and they produce dates in the region of 23rd Jan to 3rd Feb. She is adamant (and I do believe her entirely) that there was no sex with anyone else between our split and meeting this guy.
I do not know her last period around these dates, although I was aware they were very irregular.
Can anyone give an indication, or valid thoughts, on who could be the father? And please explain the rationale? I just want to do what is right.
Thank you very much.