I've recently had and MRI done of my head for speech problems, headaches, dizzy spells and vision issues. I received a CD of the test results and while reading the written report, of course I had trouble understanding some of the findings. Here are the findings listed on the report:
FINDINGS :
Comparison is made with previous exam of 11/14/2000.
The gyri and sulci are appropriate for patients age. There is 3 mm
size focus of T2 hyperintensity involving right centrum semiovale.
There is 2 mm size focus of T2 hyperintensity involving subcortical
white matter of right frontal lobe. There is no restricted diffusion.
No signal abnormality of corpus callosum or brainstem is identified.
There is no acute infarct, focal mass or intracranial hemorrhage.
There is no hydrocephalus or midline shift. Normal vascular flow-voids
are present.
An axial T2 cystogram images demonstrate no definite abnormality of
internal auditory canal or cerebellopontine angle cistern.
No abnormality of orbits, paranasal sinuses, skull base, petromastoid
or craniocervical junction is identified.
The punctate foci of T2 hyperintensity involving right frontal lobe
white matter are new compared to previous exam.
CONCLUSION :
NO ACUTE ABNORMALITY.
NONSPECIFIC TWO PUNCTATE FOCI OF T2 HYPERINTENSITY INVOLVING RIGHT
FRONTAL LOBE WHITE MATTER WHICH MAY REFLECT GLIOSIS SECONDARY TO
CHRONIC ISCHEMIA, MIGRAINE HEADACHE, VASCULITIS, FOCAL DEMYELINATING
DISEASE OR OTHER ETIOLOGY.
Can someone please explain a little about what these findings mean in simple terms. As noted I had an MRI done of my head back in 200 as well but the so called "spots" were not there in 2000 but are showing up in 2009. I do have an appointment to meet with a neurologist next week (Oct. 28th) but I just wanted to maybe have a little more understanding going into that appointment, it might help me know what types of questions to ask.
Any help would be great and thanks!