From a colonoscopy, a pathological examination stated that there was "adenomatous mucosa/low grade dysplasia. It noted that sporadic adenoma and colitis-associated dysplasia could not be definitively distinguished from each other. However, it said that the presence of colitis favors colitis-associated dysplasia". One of the polyps was able to be removed through a colonoscopy, but the other one was embedded and needed to be surgically removed. How long would you recommend the patient wait have it removed? Would 6-8 months be okay or would you recommend a lot sooner. Also, how long would it take for a rectal cancer to change from not reaching a margin to reaching one. Could that happen within 6-8 months?