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Conflicting Information

Doctor -

Thank you in advance for taking the time to read this and provide advice.

On 3/30, I deep kissed, she preformed unprotected oral and protected vaginal exposure with a prostitute. After she left, I found towels with blood stains on them. Based on the shape and amount on the towels, I assume it was discharged from her genitals after sex. There were no visible needle marks that I saw on her body or external signs of std's on her genitals.

Two days ago was the first day I noticed slight stains in my underwear when I woke up. The discharge smelled bad. I had not experienced discomfort / difficulty urinating at this point. I tested positive and was treated for urethral gonorrhea. I tested negative for chlamydia at this time. My doctor stated (with what I assume was surprise or shock) that I was a very strong positive (dark green reaction) for gonorrhea. My doctor performed only a swab test on me.

Since this exposure, I have developed what feels like congestion behind my adam's apple. I have no noticeable sinus drainage and do not have a stuffy nose. This is causing frequent unproductive coughing. When I manage to get some of the congestion up, it is clear, odorless, and tasteless. I have small white bumps (look like blisters) on the back of my tongue and a scratchy throat.

I am losing faith in my doctor's diagnosis, but have no alternatives at the moment because I am on a military base. For example, my doctor has told me that he does not believe that I have oral gonorrhea because if I did, I would be in the ICU by now due to difficulty breathing (I'm not sure if this is because he believes my urethral infection to be "strong" or not). Also, based on this, he believes that if my partner had oral gonorrhea and we deep kissed, that I would be in ICU, since I am not, he believes that somehow I got vaginal fluid, etc on the head of my naked penis / urethra at some point. Furthermore, he states that even if I did have Oral Gonorrhea, that it would be clearing up due to the treatment I received for urethral gonorrhea. Based on the fact that he believes I contracted gonorrhea through vaginal fluid, he believes that I am at significant risk for HIV. I never touched her vagina with my penis (without condom).

My treatment for gonorrhea was a shot (I don't remember the name, but I believe he said that he gave me 4 times the normal dose) and 3 zithromax pills at the same time. He also told me "that I might be one of those cases that need a second treatment".

My doctor wants to test me for Syphillis and HIV (via "antibody test") at 15-days. He states that he runs blood through 3 different hiv tests at that time and that his results are so specific that they would have a 99.9% accuracy.

After visiting these forums over the past few days, I believe that my doctor is incorrect, but I don't know how to approach telling him this or if it's even worth doing so since my treatment might be handling both oral / urethral infections.

With all of this said, I am not an expert. I made a mistake, and am paying the consequences now. However, I want to make sure that I am accurately treated / diagnosed. I don't want something to go unchecked / untreated and have it permanently affect me when it could be treated early-on with no permanent issues. The conflicting information that my doctor is providing is a great source of anxiety for me, maybe he's just trying to deliver scare tactics - it's working.

It has been 2 days since my test and treatment. The painful urination that I developed following my swab test is starting to fade, but I still have slight discomfort in my bladder (developed around the time of swab test).

I have developed explosive diarrhea (from my medication, I assume) since receiving treatment.




How easy is it to contract gonorrhea from unprotected oral sex?

Is my doctors theory on contracting gonorrhea through indirect contact with fresh vaginal fluids reasonable / possible?

Is there any indicator as to whether I would need a second treatment for gonorrhea at the time of testing?

Is it true that if I have oral gonorrhea, and have been treated for urethral gonorrhea, that the treatment would take care of both infections?

If my partner had a severe / strong oral gonorrhea infection, would that make me more susceptible to transmission through kissing?

I had no known sores, cuts, rashes, etc at the time of protected vaginal intercourse. Assuming my partner was HIV+, what does this indicate to me.

With this said, if I contracted gonorrhea via the methods that my doctor believes, how does that affect my risk for HIV?

Furthermore, with my partner demonstrating post-sex bleeding (assuming from gonorrhea), how does this affect my risk for HIV? Note that at no point did I notice any visible blood on me.

I don't know whether this is the case or not, but if my partner had sores in her mouth, how does this affect my HIV risk?

How long will it take for my diarrhea to pass?

Should I be retested for Gonorrhea / Chlamydia if my discomfort goes away?

Should I be tested for oral gonorrhea?

Would a Syphilis & HIV test at 15-days be remotely accurate? My doctor believes that it will be proof-positive at this time.

Once again, thank you.
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Avatar universal
no idea why this keeps posting in this forum and not the expert forum
Helpful - 0
207091 tn?1337709493
COMMUNITY LEADER
http://www.medhelp.org/forums/STDs/show/116

Click that, then click post a question on that page.

Aj
Helpful - 0
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