I met my husband 5 years ago. He has a needle phobia so has not been tested for STDs until a recent hospital stay for depression. I have been tested every year for everything during my annual gyno appointment and specifically for diseases such as syphilis during both of my pregnancies in the last 5 years and never tested positive for anything. His results several months ago showed that he had syphilis with a 1:8 titer. We went to the health clinic together and i tested negative for it. He received 3 treatments once a week. Then about 3 weeks ago I had my annual exam and was tested for everything ago. This time I tested positive with a 1:2 titer. I've read conflicting information about when syphilis is contagious. My husband insists that he didnt cheat and had to have had this before we met but I'm having a hard time believing that that is a possibility. Is it even possible? I understand that the more likely answer is that he cheated. But is it possible that we conceived two children together, had a monogamous relationship for 5 years, all the while he had syphilis and didn't transmit it to me until recently?