Nonsexual Gonnorhea/Chlamydia?

[ExplanationNeeded]

I am a gay male who has been in what I believed was a monogamous relationship for the past year. A couple of months after he and I first met, he had symptoms of, and tested positive for, chlamydia and gonorrhea. At the time, I got an STD test and tested negative.He absolutely swore that he did not cheat on me, and so I gave him the benefit of the doubt that maybe he got it from a previous partner and didn't know. Over the next 9 months, our relationship was off and on. During one of our "off" periods, I got another STD test and again came up negative. Now, in January, he again had symptoms and tested positive for the same two diseases. When I got tested yet again (for now the third time in 9 months), I again came up negative. We have broken up since, and after a month, he is still swearing to me that he has never cheated on me and never even had any sexual activity during any of our brief "off" periods. Not only have I tested negative, but I have never even had any symptoms (from what I've read, men can be asymptomatic for a long time, but not 9 months). Are there any documented cases of nonsexual transmission of either or both of these diseases? Or what about cases where urine tests do not identify an infection (as in, could I actually have it, but it's just not showing up in my tests)? What is the chance of him having a relapse from the first time, without passing it on to me?

Thank you in advance for any answers on what seems to be some tough questions.

[stillHurting]

Ah ha.  Yes that does make things different.  Well, the tests can give false negatives, usually these are reported to be around 5% of the time.  Also, treatment can fail in some cases.  So, it is possible you had it still, that the treatment failed, and your negative test was wrong.  It's not likely, but it's possible.  It's really up to you on how you want to interpret those odds.

It's definitely not going to migrate from your penis, or vice versa, on it's own.

[ExplanationNeeded]

The first time he got it, my doctor did treat me just in case. In addition, he is not the "top" in the relationship. In other words, unless it migrated from my penis, I have no reason to believe I could have it rectally. Only he could, really.

[stillHurting]

False negatives are very rare.  Non sexual transmission does not exist.  

However, being a gay male, were you treated when your partner was first treated?  There's a possibility you had gonorrhea/chlamydia rectally, and that will not show up in a urine test.  If you had it rectally, and didn't get treatment, you might have given it back to your partner.