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Oral Gonorrhoea Risk?

I have been reading the site and reviewing information in relation to Oral Std risks – its seems they are exceedingly rare for all infections. I had a very brief unprotected oral (30 seconds) and got paranoid that I had contracted gonorrhoea and started to panic, I then started to do some research on this matter and wondered if you could review my findings below:

According to UK statistics, Gonorrhoea was recorded at 35,000 infections in the UK last year, this doesn’t seem so bad considering a population of 65 million. Doc Handsfield and Doc Hook have made reference that oral infection accounts for around 1% of all Gonorrhoea cases and 70/80% come from gay men.

So I have come to this calculation 35,000 infections x 0.01 (1%) = 350 infected from oral sex. Then 350 x 0.20 (20% from straight men) = 70. Would this calculation be near accurate???

Gonorrhoea in the UK must be quite rare because by my calculations, contracting this via (straight) oral sex is near 1 in 1 million?
16 Responses
Avatar universal
Yes, probably even less of a risk.
Avatar universal
Thanks Vance.

So based on the UK figures provided above (35,000 cases of gonorrhoea with 1% from oral), the chance of catching gonorrhoea from fellatio (man from women) would be less than 1 in 1 million? is that correct?
Avatar universal
Avatar universal
Hi Vance,

So contracting gonorrhoea from insertive oral sex near is 1 in 1 million?

Why do some medical advisors advise for testing if the risks are 1 in 1 million?

Surely these transmissions cant happen that regular?
Avatar universal
Testing if you have a partner to be safe or to easy your mind.
Avatar universal
Final Q:

I had a very brief exposure (30 seconds), I decided not to get tested because I had no symptoms after 10 days.

1. In the 1 in 1 million chance that I had contracted this without knowing and passed this to my partner, would one of us have had symptoms by now?

2. Considering it’s been 6 months with no symptoms, how likely would it be that gonorrhoea would have self-cured? (unlikely, very likely etc)

3. Doc Hook made reference to 1 month self-cure for a man and 3 months for a women? Is this correct?

Thank you!
Avatar universal
I can't help with anxiety and going over and over again is not going to change the answer.

Simple either test to ease your mind or don't.
Avatar universal
I'm happy at 1 in 1 million Vance, just a few more educational questions.

I have decided not to be tested.

Thanks for your help.
Avatar universal
1. Over 90% of men get symptoms, less for women but you most likely would have had symptoms by day 5.

2. Doubt you even would have had it but if you did then it would have

3. If he said it then yes.
Avatar universal
Hi vance,

Its been a few months since my last post.

Although the odds are on my side, i decided to take a test for piece of mind and for the safety of my girlfriend - all negative.

This was a stupid drunken mistake that i will never do again! I would like to finally put this behind me. I am now safe to assume that my partner hasnt infected from this exposure? Surely if she was i would have tested positive? Am i correct?

I look forward to your comments. Thanks again.

Avatar universal
You would have tested positive
Avatar universal
Its been nearly 7 months and two negative tests.

She has been having spot bleeding between periods and i thought this might be because of me.

If i am negative from this exposure surely she will be, is that correct?
Avatar universal
Avatar universal
Thanks vance. The internet has made me paranoid because it said that male gonorrhea can clear in 6 weeks but takes 3/6 months in women.

I have been worried that i had passed the infection before self curing and then tested negative for that reason.

My last question, surely if this did happen my girlfriend would have reinfected me over the last 7 months?

My tests were at 5 and 6 months after the exposure. As i said both negative.
Avatar universal
Avatar universal
Thank you. Happy new year to you.
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