Yes, probably even less of a risk.
So based on the UK figures provided above (35,000 cases of gonorrhoea with 1% from oral), the chance of catching gonorrhoea from fellatio (man from women) would be less than 1 in 1 million? is that correct?
So contracting gonorrhoea from insertive oral sex near is 1 in 1 million?
Why do some medical advisors advise for testing if the risks are 1 in 1 million?
Surely these transmissions cant happen that regular?
Testing if you have a partner to be safe or to easy your mind.
I had a very brief exposure (30 seconds), I decided not to get tested because I had no symptoms after 10 days.
1. In the 1 in 1 million chance that I had contracted this without knowing and passed this to my partner, would one of us have had symptoms by now?
2. Considering it’s been 6 months with no symptoms, how likely would it be that gonorrhoea would have self-cured? (unlikely, very likely etc)
3. Doc Hook made reference to 1 month self-cure for a man and 3 months for a women? Is this correct?