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VDRL reactive; TPHA non-reactive

question... i had lab tests that show VDRL reactive (1:1); then we had confirmatory test TPHA non-reactive. what could be the cause of the false positive result ? my doctor said that it could be that i was exposed to syphillis but was treated thus my TPHA showed negative. however, we still treated it with injectable penicillin. my question is, what other factors might have caused the VDRL to show positive?
23 Responses
207091 tn?1337713093
COMMUNITY LEADER
It could be an old infection, either treated or not.  If you've ever been to a place where a disease called yaws is prevalent (usually very warm places, Africa, etc), then it might be that.

What dose of penicillian are you on?

AJ
207091 tn?1337713093
COMMUNITY LEADER
You could also ask for an RPR, which is a newer test than the VDRL, and is a bit more accurate.

AJ
Avatar universal
could it be because i have hepa b?
207091 tn?1337713093
COMMUNITY LEADER
No, those wouldn't cross react.

AJ
Avatar universal
but being positive from Hepa B is also putting my immune system on a risk, right? i was told that my immune system could be down, and so i was thinking that it is caused by my hepa b infection. my ALT/AST levels were also high.
207091 tn?1337713093
COMMUNITY LEADER
Have you had a viral load done to see how active your hep b is?  You need to be following up on that.  If you have an active hep b infection, it could be taxing your immune system.

I still don't know if that would cause a false positive for the VDRL, but you should follow up on that too.

AJ
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