Approximately 1.5 week ago I had protectd sex with a female, but did give her unprotected oral. I developed a minorly swollen left groin lymph (only a day or two later). I went to the doctor, but given the fact that the intercourse was protected, he did not think it was STD, just more of a cellulitis condition. Prescribed bactrim. Feeling a little paranoid, i have been taking penicillin as well, in the event it was syphilis, ruling out some other STD's due to lack of symptomology. I had unprotected oral sex with my girlfriend a week ago (when i got back from my trip), and now she is complaining of yeast infection (4 days later).
Could I have given her a yeast infection in her groin from mouth contact (contracted from the other woman)? I have had candidis before, so i guess thats a possibility also.
I have a few questions...
Timeline: is this timline of symptoms more consistent with a STD or a yeast infection?
How likely am I to have contracted herpes or syphilis from oral on a woman, and how likely to have passed it on through giving oral to another woman?
Can i have gotten a vaginal yeast infection in my mouth and passed it on?
Given any lack of other symptoms (lesions, scabs, spots, rashes, etc.) for either of us, is a STD likely (i am sure it is possible, but want to know if it is very likely).
The bactrim and pecicillin are working well, and the lymph node is almost back to normal, so now i have no symptoms of anything at all.