My wife and I live in different countries (I am in the United Kingdom, she is in Siberia, Russia), so when we meet we make up for lost time. The last time we met, 3 days later she developed adominal pains, which may have been due to kidney stones, and started passing cloudy urine. She had many checks including STI which came back positive for mycoplasma. She assumes the infection has come from me.
I immediately took a test and the results came back negative, however, I have since discovered the NHS do not check for mycoplasma.
We have been together for 2 years and I have not caused an infection before, also she had an STI check last June which came back negative.
My first question is can I really be carrying this infection (if I am I would have had to have had it from one of my previous relationships, the last of which ended 4 years ago), and if so, why have I not infected her before?
I informed my STI clinic about the results of her test and they have put me on a two week course of doxycycline to make. However, her treatment in extremely different. The course lasts a month and consists of the following:
Genferon, Ornidazol-vero, Tergynan, Unidox, Hapabene, Bifiform, Gentamicin, Zetamax-retard, Fluconazole and Extractum aloes fluidum (this last one is taken by injection). From googling those, zetamax has azithromycin which seems to be the 'other' abtibiotic commonly used to treat mycoplasma infections.
She has a full course for me, too (using Vitpost instead of Tergynan) and wants to DHL them to me to use instead of the doxycycline. My clinic admit to being out of their depth when I asked for their opinion on this.
I would really like to know why she needs to have such a vast amount of different drugs? I realise some of them are to treat the symptoms and I don't need to do this because I am not displaying any symptoms at all. Also the Hepabene is a supportive drug to help protect the immune system when taking the other drugs and my wife is almost disgusted with the UK's prescription to not include supportive drugs with the doxycycline. As far as I can tell, I see no point? Doxycycline is also branded Vibramycin which is something I had prescribed in my late teens to combat acne and I never suffered any side effects then.
Can anyone advise? I have no way of knowing if I carry this infection without paying to be tested, so I can't tell if this is my fault or not. Is this infection sexually transmitted exclusively? Could an infection have happened even if I am clean? I have read women are more prone to these types of infections due to a shorter urinary tract and it's proximity to the anus and our does include anal sex, although we have swapped between having vaginal and then anal sex, we have never done that the other way round. Could I have helped cause the infection without actually carrying it myself?
Neither of us have sex outside of our marriage.
My thanks in advance.