This will be your last answer. You are perseverating on issues that are not relevant to you or your partner. The test is negative. Laboratories indicate the criteria for which they base their diagnoses to cover themselves and to assist experts in unusual situations where results are difficult to interpret. These are messages for professionals, not lay people. Your partner's results are negative. Negative means that she did not have HIV. Trying to read between the lines or for that matter, reading the owner’s manuals or the wiring diagrams for the instruments used to get those results will not change that. The test is negative. EWH
Ok, I'm not the doctor, but "Western Blot is NEGATIVE for HIV-1 and HIV-2" finally means you don't have HIV. If you can't let this go, it's time to seek help. Consider counseling and talk to your doctor about meds to help you control these kinds of thoughts.
I really do not want to repeat myself. I will very briefly run through responses to some of your questions. After that, this thread is over and further comments/questions will be deleted without comment. Your anxiety needs to be controlled - you do not have HIV or an STD from the encounter you described.
The timing from expsoure to onset of symptoms is the same for HSV-1 and HSV-2 no matter what site they are occurring at.
In your case, about zero
Yes both women and men can be infected and not be aware that they have herpes infection. Some infections are detected through GYN exams.
I do not follow this question.
The symptoms of herpes are vesicles (water blisters) associated with pain or discomfort. I doubt that you would have missed it
This is the end of this thread. In addition, i would add, you should not start a new post at this time. We limit our clients to two questions per 6 month period in order to allow others a chance to get their questions addressed. EWH
I have one question for you. Can you please look at it?
The Western Blot Test report mentioned in the report the following..
Comments: Western Blot is NEGATIVE for HIV-1 and HIV-2
Technology: Processed using Fully Automated Western Blot Analyser (Autoblot)
Intepretation: HIV-1 and HIV-2 NEGSTIVE is reported when only control band or control band with p51/p55 is detected.
I have also uploaded the report. Can you please look at it and let me know what this finally means?
Am a bit worried with the intepretation and the comments mentioned in the report
My Dermatologist is on leave for a week and I don't think I can wait the time just thinking of this. This is still weighing heavily on my mind and has been playing havoc since a while. It would help if you can clarify this and put my mind at rest.
I wanted to check if :
The time period you mentioned for Herpes is it the same for oral as well as genital Herpes?
What are my chances of acquiring a late genital herpes outbreak?
Can women be infected by it and not know about it? Does it not show up during a Gynecological check up?
Can this stay dormant for a long time say like 48 days or more in my case and I don't get to know about it?
What symptoms should it show? Could I have missed it otherwise?
Please answer these if you can. I would appreciate it a lot.
I agree. As monkeyflower said, this is yet another indication that you do not have HIV. I said the last answer was my last but did want to say this. further questions will be deleted without comment. You do not have HIV. EWH
Dear, Dr EWH/monkeyflower:
My post I presume was not clearly articulated by. Hence the confusion.
This is the test report of my lady friend (mentioned in my first post) and not mine.
I understand the test results. I posted to seek clarity on the "intepretation" mentioned in the Western Blot test result. You can see the report at the link below.
In your earlier response to my post you advised that if my partner is negative (as reported in this result), then I can conclude that I am negative too.
This being the case, is the "intepretation" in the report only a caveat issued by the testing center? And, that they declare a negative result only if the band conditions are met?
What do they mean by saying that, "HIV-1 and HIV-2 NEGATIVE is reported when only control band or control band with p51/p55 is detected" ? What are these control bands with P51/p55 ?
The patient result column for all the HIV antigens as you can see in the report is "NOT DETECTED"
Your comments will be helpful.
Thank you Dr.
This has reassured me a lot!
I will see a dermatologist as advised.
Appreciate all the time you have spent on my long posts.
I went today and got my self tested for HIV. The results came back "non-reactive" to both HIV1 and HIV2. I was tested using the ELFA VIDAS HIV Duo equipment.
I presume this test result is conclusive and aligns with what you have been saying right from the begining. What is your opinion on this test?
I want to thank you for your patience, support and candid analysis of my case. Wish you the best and god bless!
We really have addressed most of these questions during our earlier interactions. I will summarize my thoughts but to get directly to the bottom line, there is no indication that you have any STD or HIV,. You are clearly anxious about this and your anxiety is making you focus on findings which are normal and/or unrelated to any risk of STD/HIV.
There is n relationship between stomatis/chelitis and STD or HIV.
The bumps you describe are likely to be normal based on what you describe and their location. Of course a diagnosis really cannot be made over the internet. What you should do is go see a dermatologist rather than asking these sorts of questions here on this forum. This is the case for all for the "bumps you describe and what you describe as "dark thin stretch marked burnt skin".
Your other symptoms are likewise non-specific. They could certainly be due to anxiety or some other process. What they are not due to is STD or HIV.
Nothing more to add. Go see a dermatologist about the bumps and your regular doctor about your other concerns. EWH