I realize that there are no definitive answers to my questions, so sorry if this is all repetitive, but I feel as though I need to ask them anyways after having read all the forum postings that relate to my situation. I am 33, just getting out of a 7 year relationship with a woman who had warts before we were together. They were treated and never returned. About a year into our relationship, she had an abnormal pap/dysplasia but her pap from one week ago came back negative. I have never shown any symptoms of HPV, but naturally I'm wondering what this means to me and future partners.
1.) Did she have 2 types of HPV? (low risk/high risk?) Does this matter to me? Is she "cured"?
2.) I have an appointment with a urologist this week because the doctor that treated the woman who I was in a relationship with said I could be tested. Is there or isn't there a test for HPV in men - urine/swab/blood?
3.) I'm trying to do the "right" thing, but am I making to big a deal out of this?
Visible genital warts are typically caused by either HPV type 6 or 11 but these types almost never cause abnormal Pap smears. Your prior partner had at least two types of HPV infection (incidentally, multiple HPV infections are the rule rather than the exception). There is no way to know if either as to whether your partner's prior HPV-related problems were from you or not. The fact that you've never had problems makes this unlikely.
So what about your risks- virtually non-existant. There are HPV tests but in the absence of visible lesions in men, they are not recommended since no one would know what to do with a positive result if you got one (much less where to take the specimen from). If you did have HPV in the past, chances are that it's gone now. The average duration of HPV infections before they are controlled by peoples own immunity is less than nine moths.
And what about disclosure? Again. I don't know what you would disclose. You clearly want to do the right thing. I admire that. In your case however, I think there is nothing to disclose.
So here's the bottom line: I may have contracted HPV from this person (she showed symptoms before we were together) and it is possible that I could be a carrier. But most likely, due to the fact that we began having sex 7 years ago and I have never shown any symptoms, my immune system has cleared it up. Therefore, disclosing to future partners always and forever is not recommended. A blood test/swab test at a urologist would not necessarily provide any more insight.
Thank you so much for all the helpful insight so far - just one more follow up question regarding available tests for men.
You stated "There are HPV tests but in the absence of visible lesions in men, they are not recommended since no one would know what to do with a positive result if you got one (much less where to take the specimen from)."
So what are the tests? I've heard visible inspection, blood, semen, urine and swab. What do you mean by "they wouldn't know what to do with a positive result"? I'm not sure I fully understand that, could you elaborate? (I'm still planning on seeing a urologist, but again, it sounds to me like you don't see me gaining anything from a visit.)
The swab tests usually look for HPV DNA but the issue of whether there is any need or benefit to be derrived from treating a positive swab test with no visible lesions or other problems is unknown. EWH
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