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Can Gonnorhea

I had a receptive oral incident back in Oct 10, if I remember correctly.  I placed my penis in the mouth of a women, for not more than 10 seconds if that, while we were in the shower.  It never went to the back of her throat, she sucked it like some one would suck a sucker meaning she didn't deep throat it.  I took a gonnorhea test on 11/17/08 and it came back negative, but yet now in Dec I still have some discomfort.  I have not had any discharge that I have notice, nor have I had any pain while urinating.  The tip of my penis has itched a few times and I did just get over a herpes outbreak on the tip of my penis. It was a very small out break on lesion/blister.  

Is it possible that my test could have given me a false negative, because I have since had sex with my wife after the negative result.

What is a sufficent amount of urine needed to take test for gonnorhea, I gave some where between 20 and 30 ml. if the is the right unit of measurement.  Was that enough?

I took a 500 mg pill of cipro about two days after the incident.  I live in California and in the Bay Area, I have heard that it is not not to effective against gonnorhea.  

From reading one of Dr. HH's post, a throat culture is not that realible of detecting gonnorhea of the throat.  I have also read that saliva makes it  hard to transmitt gonnorhea via oral, but it does happen.   What are my chances of contracting this, even after the cirpo and a negative test a month after the incident.   I hope I didn't leave anything out.  Thank you
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239123 tn?1267647614
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
It seems logical to assume that more prolonged or deeper oral penetration might be higher risk, but there are no data on this, so it's only a guess.

In general, oral sex is safe sex.  Not totally so, but much safer for all STDs than vaginal or anal sex.
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Avatar universal
Thanks, I was just confirming the throat Culture for the female I was with. If I had relied on her culture and not my own unrine test.  It is comforting knowing that cipro is 90 % effective among heterosexuals.  I use to think that getting oral sex was so safe.  I mean I know it is the lesser of the  two evils.  Knowing the facts helps in making a safer decision.  Thanks again.   So in most heterosexual situation one risk of getting gonnorhea via  the thoat is relatively low? what if there is deep throating?    Thanks
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239123 tn?1267647614
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Ciprofloxacin resistance indeed is a problem, but much more so among gay/bi men.  That population accounts for most gonorrhea in the Bay Area, and overall it sounds about right that around half of all gonorrhea is caused by cipro-resistant strains.  But among heterosexuals, it's much less.  I don't know if 10% is right, but probably not far off.

But this really makes no difference anyway.  My reply would be identical even if you hadn't taken the drug.  That the other 4 factors would all break the wrong way is also statistically almost impossible.

Throat culture picks up around 70% of gonorrhea of the throat.  But unless I misunderstood the question, it was your penis that was exposed, not your throat, so it's not an issue for you.
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Avatar universal
Thank you. You have eased my mind.  But the Cipro statement threw me.  I have heard that cirpo is 50% relible in the western state and that is why they have stopped perscribing it.  I mean I know you would know better than I, but that is what I got off the CDC website.  If you have time could you explain, that and the relibility of throat cultures for Gonnorhea.  The more information the better...   Thanks and Happy Holidays.
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239123 tn?1267647614
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
All things considered, you can be sure you don't have gonorrhea from the oral sex exposure you describe.  First, the odds are your partner didn't have gonorrhea of the throat; it's not all that common.  Second, although urethral (penile) gonorrhea certainly can be acquired by oral sex, the risk is low for any particular exposure.  Third, urethral gonorrhea almost always causes an easily noticeable discharge of pus from the penis, and asymptomatic infection is rare; absence of discharge is strong evidence (but not proof) that no infection occurred.  Fourth, if you had been infected, the cipro you took (inappropriately, I should say) would have cured it with 90% reliability.  Finally, the tests are highly reliable.

For you to have gonorrhea form that event, all 5 of those long-shot factors have to have gone the wrong way.  The statistical chance of that is zero.  You didn't need testing at all, but the test result is reliable regardless of how much urine is collected -- but in any case, 20-30 ml is the right amount.

So definitely you don't have it.  All is well.

I hope this helps.  Best wishes--  HHH, MD
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