I have been married for 21 years and have been monogomous. I did have 4 sex partners before that, but have had normal pap smears until my most recent one. They are testing me for HPV. If the test is positive, does this mean that my husband has been unfaithful to me and given me HPV? I'm pretty sure that he's been with someone else within the last year. I did kiss someone else about 2 years ago, but there was absolutley no genital contact. Could that cause HPV?
To answer the question posed in the title of this thread: No, HPV cannot prove infidelity. If you have an abnormal pap, you probably have HPV. But you could well have recent reactivation of an infection from 20 or more years ago; if positive (which it probably will be), it will say nothing one way or the other whether you or your husband has had other sex partners. And no, you can't get HPV by kissing.
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