Welcome to the STD forum.
Some STDs are transmitted by skin-skin contact (herpes, syphilis, HPV), others primarily through infected genital fluids (chlamydia, gonorrhea, HIV, hepatitis B). Genital apposition without penetration (some call it "outercourse") carries theoretical risk for the skin-to-skin infections. I stress "theoretical" risk because actual transmission is rare when there is no penile penetration. Also, given the very brief exposure, the chance you caught anything is very low. to your specific questions:
1) No serious worries, but theoretical risks of syphilis, herpes, or HPV.
2,3) Syphilis is the least likely of all. Syphilis in the US is primarily a problem in gay men. And yes if you had syphilis, you probably would have noticed the penile sore (chancre) by now. But to be 100% safe, you could have a syphilis blood test 6 weeks after the event.
4) Yes. With no symptoms of herpes by now, you can be quite sure you weren't infected.
5) There is no way I can guarantee you weren't infected. But if I were in your situation, I would continue unprotected sex with my wife with no fear of infecting her.
As for HPV, it's also nothing to worry about. Almost all infections are asymptomatic and never cause any problem. And in any case, there is no test for asymptomatic infection.
I hope this helps. Best wishes-- HHH, MD
Thanks for your help. Much appreciated. Sorry for the thread jump.
Zero risk. Dry lesions of secondary syphilis rash are not infectious. You should not be treating yourself on this account.
No discussion since this is a thread jump. If you have further questions, speak with your derm employer, an ID consultant, or the local/state STD clinic.
Question relating somewhat to original post. I work as a PA in Dermatology. I saw a patient last week for a rash. I always usually wear gloves when people have unknown rash. Patient had one hyperkeratotic dry small papule on hand. I shook his hand when I walked in. Long story short, patient had a chancre on his penis, +rpr, and likely papule was secondary rash. Chance of transmission? I am dozing myself with doxy 100 bid for 2 weeks? Thoughts? Thanks.
1) Most cases of asymptomatic primary syphilis occur because the initial lesion (the chancre) is in a hidden site -- inside the vagina or rectum, for example. Most men with penile exposure wouldn't miss it. However, truly asymptomatic cases probably occur from time to time, which is why you may wish to have a blood test anyway.
2) Yes, Latinos in the SW also are at higher risk (largely in undocumented immigrants), but still a lot lower risk than gay/bi men.
3) Those factors all are associated with reduced STD risk.
Dr., some educational questions:
1) In the first six weeks, is syphilis ever truly asymptomatic? Or can the symptoms be extremely mild? Everything I have read indicates that it can be asymptomatic at a later phase, but not in the first phase. And those symptoms are quite obvious.
2) I saw that syphilis cases are more prevalent among Latinos in the SW. Is that still largely based in the MSM community?
3) Would her being over 25--she is 26--a mother of three, and not being a CSW decrease the likelihood she had such an STD? Either way, it is still very unlikely she had it in the first place, correct?
Thank you again for your help. I hope this post is helpful to others as well
Thanks, Dr. Handsfield. I appreciate your time. I think that is all I need.