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Chlamydia
I recently tested positive for chlamydia. I have been married 12 years and have never tested positive. My spouse denied cheating. I had the test repeated and it is positive. He has now admitted to cheating saying that he receive oral sex one-time approximately 14 months ago from a stripper. My questions-
1. Is it possible I could have this for over 14 months? I have read it usually clears up in a year.
2. He has stated that she "went up and down" two to three times. Is it possible and likely that A) such a short time of exposure - basically seconds - would result on infection, and B) that it would be transmitted orally? I have read that while possible to transmit orally, it is not as easy and even with direct contact, via sex, the rate of transmission is approx 32%.
1. Is it possible I could have this for over 14 months? I have read it usually clears up in a year.
2. He has stated that she "went up and down" two to three times. Is it possible and likely that A) such a short time of exposure - basically seconds - would result on infection, and B) that it would be transmitted orally? I have read that while possible to transmit orally, it is not as easy and even with direct contact, via sex, the rate of transmission is approx 32%.
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Good question, and it's confusing to many patients. See the thread linked below for a detailed response.
http://www.medhelp.org/posts/STDs/chlamydia-by-cunnilingus/show/1733963
http://www.medhelp.org/posts/STDs/chlamydia-by-cunnilingus/show/1733963
Sorry - one more question. Why does all the literature on chlamydia say it is possible to receive from oral sex? It is even on the CDC fact sheets and every other article and website I visited. I read that it can be found in the throat (while in only very small percentages of people) and I also read that many people (like my husband) say there was only oral sex - so is that the reason they have said it is "possible" or is there actual literature/ research showing tramssion via oral sex?
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Spontaneous cure is common in men, typically within a few weeks or months. Since you haven't had sex with anyone else, your husband is the only possible source of your infection. As discussed above, nothing more can be said about when either of your was infected.
Your husband needs to be treated for chlamydia, as you do, despite his negative test.
Your husband needs to be treated for chlamydia, as you do, despite his negative test.
He has now tested negative. I have not have any form of sexual contact expect my husband - in 15 years.
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
I'm not sure where you heard that "different tests are required when sexual intercourse and based on timing". It isn't true.
Your urine test probably was a NAAT, not a probe test; the latter is not approved for testing urine. So we can be confident your test results are reliable and you are infected.
It is most likely that your husband was infected, and infected you, within the past 3-4 months. It is possible, but less likely, that he was infected 14 months ago and you have been carrying chlamydia for more than a year. Beyond that, it isn't possible to know how long you have been infected. Unless your husband changes his story, you may never know.
Your urine test probably was a NAAT, not a probe test; the latter is not approved for testing urine. So we can be confident your test results are reliable and you are infected.
It is most likely that your husband was infected, and infected you, within the past 3-4 months. It is possible, but less likely, that he was infected 14 months ago and you have been carrying chlamydia for more than a year. Beyond that, it isn't possible to know how long you have been infected. Unless your husband changes his story, you may never know.
Thank you - to make sure I completely understand your response - he would have had to sexual intercourse with an infected woman within several months?
I had two tests - cervical and then urine - as part of my prenatal appointment. All other tests were negative. The timeline is important and the method of exposure - to him- us important to me since different tests are required when sexual intercourse and based on timing.
I had two tests - cervical and then urine - as part of my prenatal appointment. All other tests were negative. The timeline is important and the method of exposure - to him- us important to me since different tests are required when sexual intercourse and based on timing.
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Also, you and your husband need testing for other common STDs. If not yet done, you need tests for gonorrhea, syphilis, and HIV. (Most likely gonorrhea was done, since testing for it is routinely done simultaneously with chlamydia testing.)
And I also made a minor error above. It is conceivable you were infected by your husband 12-14 months ago, i.e. that his only sexual indiscretion occurred at that time. But that still leaves the problem that chlamydia is rarely acquired by oral sex.
And I also made a minor error above. It is conceivable you were infected by your husband 12-14 months ago, i.e. that his only sexual indiscretion occurred at that time. But that still leaves the problem that chlamydia is rarely acquired by oral sex.
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Welcome to the forum. Thanks for your question.
If the sexual exposure circumstances are correct, I have to wonder whether your test results are accurate. Probably they are, especially with two separate positive results. Still, it would be helpful to know exactly what chlamydia test was done. Try to find out from your doctor, or from the lab that did the test, whether it was a test called NAAT (for nucleic acid amplification test) or some other test, such as a DNA probe test. The former are highly accurate and rarely give falsely positive results, but the probe tests sometimes do so.
The rest of this reply assumes your test results are reliable, i.e. you are truly infected with chlamydia. If so, your husband's story doesn't compute. Chlamydia is rarely acquired by oral sex, and is rarely carried (by men) for more than a few weeks or months and 14 months is extremely unlikely. And although it can be carried by women for a year or more, 12 years is much too long. Therefore, assuming your own history is accurate -- i.e. you have had no partners other than your husband -- then most likely he has had unprotected vaginal (or anal) sex with at least one other partner within the past few months.
Those comments answer both your questions, but to be sure there is no misunderstanding: 1) You are correct that it's unlikely you husband has been infected for 14 months. 2) The "up and down" business (meaning brief oral sex?) is an unlikely source of chlamydia. I'm not sure where you came up with 32% as a transmission risk from oral sex; either you found an online error or you misunderstood something you read. It is far lower than that, probably under 1 chance in a few thousand.
I wish I could have given you happier news. But do let me know the type of tests you had. There remains a small chance that your test results are false. In addition, it is crucial that your husband be tested for chlamydia; and of course both of you need treatment.
Good luck with all of it-- HHH, MD
If the sexual exposure circumstances are correct, I have to wonder whether your test results are accurate. Probably they are, especially with two separate positive results. Still, it would be helpful to know exactly what chlamydia test was done. Try to find out from your doctor, or from the lab that did the test, whether it was a test called NAAT (for nucleic acid amplification test) or some other test, such as a DNA probe test. The former are highly accurate and rarely give falsely positive results, but the probe tests sometimes do so.
The rest of this reply assumes your test results are reliable, i.e. you are truly infected with chlamydia. If so, your husband's story doesn't compute. Chlamydia is rarely acquired by oral sex, and is rarely carried (by men) for more than a few weeks or months and 14 months is extremely unlikely. And although it can be carried by women for a year or more, 12 years is much too long. Therefore, assuming your own history is accurate -- i.e. you have had no partners other than your husband -- then most likely he has had unprotected vaginal (or anal) sex with at least one other partner within the past few months.
Those comments answer both your questions, but to be sure there is no misunderstanding: 1) You are correct that it's unlikely you husband has been infected for 14 months. 2) The "up and down" business (meaning brief oral sex?) is an unlikely source of chlamydia. I'm not sure where you came up with 32% as a transmission risk from oral sex; either you found an online error or you misunderstood something you read. It is far lower than that, probably under 1 chance in a few thousand.
I wish I could have given you happier news. But do let me know the type of tests you had. There remains a small chance that your test results are false. In addition, it is crucial that your husband be tested for chlamydia; and of course both of you need treatment.
Good luck with all of it-- HHH, MD
You are reading content posted in the STDs Forum
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