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Chlamydia False Positive?

Hello!  I would like to thank you in advance for your help.  I was recently STD tested during a routine physical exam.  My doctor later informed me that the tests had returned with a low grade chlamydia infection, and had me take a single dose of azithromycin.  However, I have never had vaginal sex.  The only sex I have had was an oral encounter. I used a condom when I gave, but I received without any protection (I am a female in my twenties and my partner was a male in his twenties).  This was approximately one year ago.  I also mutually masturbated with this individual.  The test was a Chlamydia Nucleic Acid Probe.  So here are my questions:

1.) Is it possible for me to have contracted chlamydia from giving protected oral sex or receiving unprotected oral sex?

2.) Is mutual masturbation a risk for contracting chlamydia?  In hindsight, there is a possibility there may have been a small amount of fluid from him on either of our hands when touching me.  However, none of the touching was penetrative.  Even if I was exposed to a small amount of infected fluid from one of our hands, is it possible that it would move to the opening of my vagina, diffuse through my hymen, and travel up my vagina to my reproductive organs?  Or is this scenario not possible?

3.) I mutually masturbated with this person two times around eight months before this encounter.  Is it possible for me to have contracted chlamydia then?  I was also treated for a bronchial infection with azithromycin around two months after this first round of mutual masturbation.  Would that have knocked out the possibility of chlamydia from those mutual masturbation encounters?

4.) If it is possible to contract chlamydia from oral sex or mutual masturbation, I've had the infection for over a year.  Could I have incurred significant reproductive damage in this time?  I am worried that I may have somehow contracted chlamydia during one of these sexual activities. Is it possible that I did?
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Avatar universal
Thank you for your help Dr. Hook.  I will stop thinking about it.  Take care!
Helpful - 0
300980 tn?1194929400
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
The nucleic acid tests are for DNA, not antibodies.

1.  Yes, the fact that you have not had penile contact makes it most unlikely that you have chlamydia.

2.  There is not penetration with mutual masturbation,  While there is a tiny theoretical risk of acquiring infection from an infected partner, the fact is that STDs are not transmitted when the contact is limited to mutual masturbation.

3.  Most people do not have STDs

4.  My answer stands.

5.  No, there is no practical way for you to check. Furthermore, even if there were, to do so would be a waste of time and resources.

Try to move on from this.  EWH

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Avatar universal
Thank you for your response Dr. Hook.  You are reiterating what my provider has told me.  And while I completely trust my doctor (in addition to your expertise), a positive test result is always anxiety-provoking.  The test was a nucleic acid probe conducted on a urine sample.  I don't really know what that means (it searches for DNA or antibodies, right?).  However, I know it's supposed to be incredibly accurate (which only adds to my fear in this situation).  I have never had a pelvic exam or anything ever going into my vagina (I tried a tampon once, it didn't work out very well).  It may be something I will have to work on if I do ever want to have sex or children, though I have a very fear-based attitude towards sex (which I am sure is evident in my posting).  

1.) Does not ever having a penis anywhere near my vagina reduce my risk even more?  

2.) Why isn't mutual masturbation a risk?  Isn't there a potential for fluid exchange?

3.) I'm not sure I understand the statistics you are citing about chlamydia and gonorrhea.  Are you saying it is an uncommon infection in general?

4.) I don't know if I can get a hold of my partner. I do know it is very possible that he had STDs.  He is incredibly promiscuous, and had gotten a girl that had told him she was infertile pregnant (perhaps she had chlamydia?) Our sexual interactions are not amongst my proudest moments...but it is still unlikely that he gave me anything during oral sex or mutual masturbation, right?

5.) Is there any way for me to know if my reproductive system is ok, or will I just not know until I try to get pregnant?  I'm really worrying about it.  And I think I'm having phantom abdominal pain.  I'm worried that my period was a week late last month (I'm normally on a 26 day cycle)...though it's more likely to have been offset by academic stresses.  I was having pain a couple months ago where my kidneys are (lower back), but I attributed that to dehydration. Could that be a symptom? I am completely aware that I'm being slightly ridiculous, but is there any way to know?

Thank you so much for your help doctor!  
Helpful - 0
300980 tn?1194929400
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Welcome to our Forum.  I realize that this test result has caused considerable concern for you.  We can try to work through it but now, having taken azithromycin, there is no longer even any way to verify if an infection was ever present.  My sense is that it is almost certain that you have not had chlamydia and your test result was incorrect.  I cannot fault your doctor for treating you - I'm sure the reasoning was that it is far better to be safe than sorry and I agree with that perspective.  Nonetheless, having been treated, you may never know.  I hope the comments I am about to make will be helpful for you and help you to move forward.

I am skeptical that you actually had chlamydial infection, as I will outline below.  If you did, the azithromycin you took would reliable treat the infection although, as I have already said, the infection is almost never transmitted through oral sex or mutual masturbation (as much as we would like to emphatically say never, the fact of the matter is that in science, rarely strange things do happen.  Thus, while for the reasons I am about to outline I doubt that you had chlamydia, I cannot give you a 100% no answer but rather a 99.9999% no answer.

By the way, was your positive chlamydial test a test taken from your genital tract in the course of a pelvic examination?  if so, given the fact that you have never had genital intercourse (i.e. penile penetration of your vagina, even for just a second) then I would expect that the result was either a laboratory error or some other sort of mix up.  

Studies searching for chlamydial infection in persons who might be at risk because of performance of unprotected sex have found that 1 or two persons have positive tests when thousands are tested, a far, far lower number than for gonorrhea which is, in contrast, relatively commonly found in these situation.  when you had to that the fact that the oral sex you describe was condom protected, it simply is almost certain (remember, we can never say never) that you did not get infected.  Similarly, mutual masturbation is safe sex with virtually no risk of STD transmission.

To answer your specific questions:
1.  See above.  Virtually NO risk from receiving oral sex and even less from giving protected oral sex.

2.  Again, chances are close to zero.  

3.  The azithromycin you took for your respiratory tract infection would have killed any chlamydia present.

4.  This gets even further into the realm of something that is virtually impossible and is not something to worry about.

One other suggestion.  If you are able, you might explain the dilemma to your partner.  If he has never been tested he could be, if he has been and was negative, it also would add to the probability that the lab test was wrong.

Hope this helps.  EWH


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