The issue is duration. Years later it is unlikely that chlamydia would be there, just as is the case for gonorrhea. Over that time it is likely that either you would have become symptomatic, your body would have cleared the infection or antibiotics you took for something else would have cured the infection. EWH
One last question, just to clarify - you stated that gonorrhea rarely lasts in your system for years without signs, what about chlamydia? I've looked up symptoms of chlamydia and they seem to indicate that it could cause pelic pain in males.
Thank you for your help in this matter!
Nope, no change in my opinion or assessment. EWH
I also had a few unprotected oral encounters with other females, but from what I've read on here the risk is quite low of getting an STD that way. Does this change anything?
Welcome to the Forum. In the situation you describe I would be flabbergasted if you (and your GF) had an STD. As you point out, if she has never had another partner, you are the sole potential source of risk and form what you say your risk is very low. further, For gonorrhea to persist for several years without symptoms would be very, very unusual.
As you point out, an initial void urine is preferable to a mid stream specimen. How much less sensitive a mid-stream test is not known but they probably do detect most infections.
Her chances of having GC or CT PID form you are tiny. There are many possible causes of abdominal pain. If they continue to trouble her she should visit her doctor for evaluation.
Finally one last comment unrelated to your questions.. Partial non-condom protected penetration is still unprotected intercourse. If you are worried about pregnancy or STD you should use condoms throughout sex. EWH
Sorry the sentance above meant to say "I asked doctor for an STD test" not "I asked doctor for a 2 year relationship. lol. Thanks.