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Worried about possible exposure, if it even is...
About 9 weeks ago I had unprotected sex with a girl I had met at a party. Experienced no symptoms of ARS, but I got tested at 7 weeks anyway and it came back negative, which by your standards is reliable correct?
This past Thursday, a good freind of mine that I've been very very close freinds with, a girl, and me (I'm male by the way) wound up having sex, however, this time, I put a condom on. We did exchange oral. I had asked her the next day if shes had unprotected encounters with anybody since the last time she got tested and she said one time with a close freind, who had actually cheated on his gf of 4 years with her. I've asked her about them to see if they were both clean and she swears up and down that I dont have anything to worry about.
Now, less than a week later, I started feeling under the weather. No noticable symptoms besides fatigue and a slight sore throat, no swollen lymph nodes or anything else. I know the risk is near zero for cunnilingus, but I asked her just out of curiosity if she was menstruating because in infected women this obviously will increase the probablility of transmission to the giver, and she told me that she had just gotten over her period and she was no longer bleeding from her vagina. I didnt notice any werid taste or anything either that was out of the ordinary.
I'm just going crazy with paranoia. I know symptoms are not indicative of anything. It is finals week and lately my sleeping patterns have been irregular and it also is flu season and their are a ton of people that are sick. I should also mention that I was on a low carb diet to try and lose some weight. It's just the timing of the onset of my feeling under the weather that has gotten me scared. Should I definatly go get tested again? Do I have anything to be scared or uneasy about? Is cunnilingus during or slightly after menstruation more easily transmitted? I mean it is blood. Also, I'm sure your going to say that my 7 week negative is reliable correct?
This past Thursday, a good freind of mine that I've been very very close freinds with, a girl, and me (I'm male by the way) wound up having sex, however, this time, I put a condom on. We did exchange oral. I had asked her the next day if shes had unprotected encounters with anybody since the last time she got tested and she said one time with a close freind, who had actually cheated on his gf of 4 years with her. I've asked her about them to see if they were both clean and she swears up and down that I dont have anything to worry about.
Now, less than a week later, I started feeling under the weather. No noticable symptoms besides fatigue and a slight sore throat, no swollen lymph nodes or anything else. I know the risk is near zero for cunnilingus, but I asked her just out of curiosity if she was menstruating because in infected women this obviously will increase the probablility of transmission to the giver, and she told me that she had just gotten over her period and she was no longer bleeding from her vagina. I didnt notice any werid taste or anything either that was out of the ordinary.
I'm just going crazy with paranoia. I know symptoms are not indicative of anything. It is finals week and lately my sleeping patterns have been irregular and it also is flu season and their are a ton of people that are sick. I should also mention that I was on a low carb diet to try and lose some weight. It's just the timing of the onset of my feeling under the weather that has gotten me scared. Should I definatly go get tested again? Do I have anything to be scared or uneasy about? Is cunnilingus during or slightly after menstruation more easily transmitted? I mean it is blood. Also, I'm sure your going to say that my 7 week negative is reliable correct?
Thank you so much doctor and sorry for the discrepency regarding the placement of the question in the forums. You have helped so many people inlcuding myself and again I thank you for your sharing your knowledge. I wanted to ask you though, when you said "the chance any particular sexually active woman in the US has HIV is no higher than 1 in 1,000." So that literaly means that 1 out of every sexually active women in the US has HIV? That number just seems high to me for some reason. Thank you doctor. so much.
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
The forum software shouldn't give an option to post an HIV question in the STD forum or vice versa. I have asked the forum administrator to look into it. Giving you the benefit of the doubt for good faith in trying to follow the rules, here is a more complete reply to your original and follow-up questions.
The risk of catching HIV from any one episode of vaginal sex averages 1 chance in 2,000, if the woman is infected; and the chance any particular sexually active woman in the US has HIV is no higher than 1 in 1,000. So right there, the chance you caught HIV was no higher than 1 in 2 million. For comparison, for residents of the US, the lifetime risk of dying of a lightning strike is 1 chance in 81,000, or 25 times higher than your risk of getting HIV. Then add that at least 95% of infected people have postive antibody test results by 7 weeks and you're at one chance in 40 million that you have HIV.
Your symptoms make no difference, because so many other things cause the same symptoms and are much more common than HIV. Therefore, symptoms never change the odds someone has HIV, even when the symptoms are typical for a new HIV infection - and your symptoms don't suggest HIV anyway.
As to why oral exposures are such low risk, the reasons are complex and not fully understood. What is known has been discussed a lot on the HIV forum; use the search link to find them. The bottom line is that HIV isn't very easily transmitted unless mainlined into the bloodstream, and oral tissues aren't very susceptible. Among babies nursed by HIV infected mothers, swallowing a couple ounces of HIV infected milk daily, about 15% become infected over 6 months. That shows you how low the risk is for each swallowing event. (The breast milk issue is more complex than that, because often there isn't much infectious HIV in milk. But you get the idea.)
Bottom line: Assuming you have no other risky exposures, you don't have HIV. You can take it to the bank.
HHH, MD
The risk of catching HIV from any one episode of vaginal sex averages 1 chance in 2,000, if the woman is infected; and the chance any particular sexually active woman in the US has HIV is no higher than 1 in 1,000. So right there, the chance you caught HIV was no higher than 1 in 2 million. For comparison, for residents of the US, the lifetime risk of dying of a lightning strike is 1 chance in 81,000, or 25 times higher than your risk of getting HIV. Then add that at least 95% of infected people have postive antibody test results by 7 weeks and you're at one chance in 40 million that you have HIV.
Your symptoms make no difference, because so many other things cause the same symptoms and are much more common than HIV. Therefore, symptoms never change the odds someone has HIV, even when the symptoms are typical for a new HIV infection - and your symptoms don't suggest HIV anyway.
As to why oral exposures are such low risk, the reasons are complex and not fully understood. What is known has been discussed a lot on the HIV forum; use the search link to find them. The bottom line is that HIV isn't very easily transmitted unless mainlined into the bloodstream, and oral tissues aren't very susceptible. Among babies nursed by HIV infected mothers, swallowing a couple ounces of HIV infected milk daily, about 15% become infected over 6 months. That shows you how low the risk is for each swallowing event. (The breast milk issue is more complex than that, because often there isn't much infectious HIV in milk. But you get the idea.)
Bottom line: Assuming you have no other risky exposures, you don't have HIV. You can take it to the bank.
HHH, MD
I'm sorry doctor when I posted the question the drop arrow only gave me certain options in terms of forums to place the question. Actually the HIV forum is at some kind of limit and is unable to take new questions at this time. Thanks so much for the response.
If I may though, why is it that orally it is such a small risk in terms of transmission, as opposed to genitally? In my case, why wouldnt the fact that she jus got done mentrauting but could still have small amounts of blood coming from her vagina be a high risk situation, assuming that she is hiv positive, im just curious
If I may though, why is it that orally it is such a small risk in terms of transmission, as opposed to genitally? In my case, why wouldnt the fact that she jus got done mentrauting but could still have small amounts of blood coming from her vagina be a high risk situation, assuming that she is hiv positive, im just curious
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
See the notice at the top of this forum: "This forum is limited to questions about STDs other than HIV/AIDS. For questions about HIV prevention, or if you have general questions about safe sex (e.g., condoms, how to protect yourself from HIV and STDs), please visit the HIV Prevention and Safe Sex Forum."
You describe no signficant risk and no worrisome symptoms, and do not require HIV testing. Your negative test results at 7 weeks is reliable. If you need more information, please post a new question in the HIV forum.
HHH, MD
You describe no signficant risk and no worrisome symptoms, and do not require HIV testing. Your negative test results at 7 weeks is reliable. If you need more information, please post a new question in the HIV forum.
HHH, MD
You are reading content posted in the STDs Forum
Herpes spreads by oral, vaginal and anal sex.
Herpes sores blister, then burst, scab and heal.
STIs are the most common cause of genital sores.
Millions of people are diagnosed with STDs in the U.S. each year.
STDs can't be transmitted by casual contact, like hugging or touching.
Syphilis is an STD that is transmitted by oral, genital and anal sex.
